Class 9

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Work and Energy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 11 Work and Energy

HBSE 9th Class Science Work and Energy Intext Questions and Answers

Questions from Sub-Section 11.1

Question 1.
A force of 7N acts on an object. The displacement is, say 8 m in the direction of the force (Fig. 11.1). Let us take it that the force acts on the object through the displacement. What is the work done in this case?

Solution:
Here,
Force (F) = 7N
Displacement (s) = 8m
Work done (W) =?
We know that, Work done (W) = Force (F) × Displacement (s) = 7 × 8N.m = S6 Joule

Questions from Sub-Section 11.1

Question 1.
When do we say that work is done?
Answer:
When an object is displaced by applying force, it is said to be work done.
Thus, work done (W) = Force (F) × Displacement (s)

Question 2.
Write an expression for the work done when a force is acting on an object in the direction of its displacement?
Answer:
When a force is acting on an object in the direction of its displacement. The equation of work will be as follows:
Work done (W) = Force (F) X Displacement (s)
Thus, work done ¡s positive when the force is ¡n the direction of displacement.

Question 3.
Define 1 J of work.
Answer:
Work is said to be done 1 joule when a force of 1 N acting on an object and it is displaced through 1 m in the direction of force.
Thus, 1 J = 1 N x lm

Question 4.
A pair of bullocks exerts a force of 140 N on a plough. The field being ploughed is 15 m long. How much work is done in plowing the length of the field?
Solution:
Here,
Force (F) = 140 N
Displacement (s) = 15 m
Work done (W) = F × S = 140 × 15 = 21001

Questions from Sub-Section 11.2

Question 1.
What is the kinetic energy of an object?
Answer:
The energy possessed by an object due to its motion is called kinetic energy. A body of mass m moving with velocity v has kinetic energy (E) equal to \(\frac {1}{2}\)mv².

Question 2.
Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.
Answer:
The kinetic energy of a body of mass m moving with velocity v is; K.E = \(\frac {1}{2}\) v²

Question 3.
The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving with a velocity of 5 ms^-1 is 25 J. What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased three times ?
Answer:
The kinetic energy of an object of mass, m moving with a velocity of 5 ms^-1 is 25 J. If its velocity is doubled (10 ms^-1), its kinetic energy will increase four (2^-1) times i.e. 100 J. But if its velocity is tripled (15 ms^-1), its kinetic energy will increase nine (3²) times i.e. 225 J.

Questions from Sub-Section 11.3

Question 1.
What is power ?
Answer:
Power is defined as the rate of doing work or the rate of transfer of energy. If an agent does a work W in time t, then power is given by :

Unit of power is watt (W).

Question 2.
Define 1 watt of power.
Answer:
1 watt is the power of an agent, which does work at the rate of 1 joule per second.

Question 3.
A lamp consumes 1000 J of electric energy in 10 s. What is its power ?
Solution:
Here,
Work done (W) = 1000J Time(t) = 10 s Power (P) = ?
We know that,
Work done(W) = 1000 J
Time(t) = 10 s
Power(P) = ?
We know that,
P = \(\frac {W}{t}\) = \(\frac {1000}{10}\) Js^-1= 100 W(Watt)

Question 4.
Define average power.
Answer:
The ratio of total energy used to total time given is called average power. Thus,

HBSE 9th Class Science Work and Energy Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not work is done in the light of your understanding of the term ‘work’.
(i) Suma is swimming in a pond.
(ii) A donkey is carrying a load on its back.
(iii) A wind-mill is lifting water from a well.
(iv) A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
(v) A engine is pulling a train.
(vi) Food grains are getting dried in the sun.
(vii) A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.
Answer:
(i) There is work when suma is swimming in a pond, because she is displacing in the direction of force.
(it) No work is done because its displacement is zero.
(iii) Work is done in lifting the water because it displaces in the direction of force.
(iv) No work is done because displacement is zero.
(v) Work is done in pulling the train because the train is displacing in the direction of engine.
(vi) No work is done because the displacement is zero.
(vii) Work is done by the wind energy in producing motion in sailboat because sail boat is displacing in the direction of force.

Question 2.
An object was thrown at a certain angle to the ground moves in a curved path and falls back to. the ground. The initial and the final point of the path of the object lie on the same horizontal line. What is the work done by the force of gravity on the object?
Answer:
The work done by the force of gravity on the object is zero because the displacement of the object is zero.

Question 3.
A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.
Answer:
When a battery lights a bulb, chemical energy is converted in electric energy.

Question 4.
The certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 ms-1 to 2 ms^-1. Calculate the work done by the force.
Solution:
Here,
Mass of the body (m) = 20 kg
Initial velocity of the body (u) = 5 ms^-1
Final velocity of the body (v) = 2 ms^-1
Initial kinetic energy of the body (E₁) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) mu² = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 20 × (5)² J = 250J
Final kinetic energy of the body (E₂) = \(\frac {1}{2}\)m(v)² = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 20 × (2)² J = 40 J
Thus, Work done = Change in the Kinetic Enegry = E₁ – E₂
= 250 J – 40J = 210 J

Question 5
A mass of 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved to a point B. If the line joining A and B is horizontal. What is the work done on the object by the gravitational force ? Explain your answer.
Solution:
Here,
Mass of the object (m) = 10 kg
Force of gravity (g) = 9.8 ms^-2
Height (h) = 0
Work done by force of gravity (w) = mgh = 10 × 9.8 × 0 = 0
Thus, the work done by force of gravity is zero because displacement is horizontal.

Question 6.
The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. Does this violate the law of conservation of energy ? Why ?
Answer:
The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively but this does not violate the law of conservation of energy because this energy is transferred in kinetic energy. The total potential energy nearest to earth changes in kinetic energy and on reaching the earth, it converts in potential energy.

Question 7.
What are the various energy transformations that occur when you are riding a bicycle?
Answer:
When we ride a bicycle, our muscular energy changes in kinetic energy and we get muscular energy from the food after converting in chemical energy.

Question 8.
Does the transfer of energy take place when you push a huge rock with all your might and fail to move it ? Where is the energy you spend going?
Answer:
When we push a huge rock with all our might and fail to move it, the transformation of energy in this stage wastes against friction and the work done is considered as zero.

Question 9.
A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during a month. How much energy is , in joules?
Solution:
Here,
Energy consumed = 250 units = 250 kWh = 250 × 1000 × 3600s = 900000000 watt second = 9 × 108J

Question 10.
An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its potential energy ? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is halfway down, (g = 10 ms^-2 )
Solution:
Here,
The mass of the object (m) = 40 kg
Height of the object from the earth (h) = 5 m
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 ms^-2
Potential energy of the object (w) = mgh
40 × 5 × 10 J = 200J
If the object is allowed to fall freely, the half of the potential energy of the object in the halfway will convert in kinetic energy. Therefore the kinetic energy of the object when it is half-way down = \(\frac {2000}{2}\) = 1000J

Question 11.
What is the work done by the force of gravity on a satellite moving around the earth? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The work done by the force of gravity on a satellite moving around the earth is zero because the displacement of both is zero.

Question 12.
Can there be displacement of an object in the absence of any force acting on it ? Think. Discuss this question with your friends and teacher.
Answer:
Ho, there cannot be displacement of an object in the absense of any force acting on it because the displacement is always due to unbalanced force.

Question 13.
A person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes and gets tired. Has he done some work or not ? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The work done by the person is zero when he hold a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes because the displacement is zero.

Question 14.
An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much energy does it use in 10 hours ?
Solution:
Here,
The power of the electric heater (P) = 1500W
Time (t) = 10 hours
Energy (w) = P × t = 15000 Wh = \(\frac {15000}{1000}\) kWh = 15 k Wh

Question 15.
Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which occur when we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it to oscillate. Why does the bob eventually come to rest ? What happens to its energy eventually? Is it a violation of the law of conservation of energy.gy ?
Solution:
When we take the bob or pendulum from its middle position to one side (let left side) upto some height, the work done by it is conserved in the form of potential energy. When the bob is allow to swing, then the total potential energy of the bob changes into kinetic energy on reaching left-to-right and middle position. This kinetic energy takes the bob upto that height at which the kinetic energy is changed into potential energy. Due to this potential energy, the bob oscillates again from right to middle. This continuous and bob or pendulum moves from right-left.

After sometime bob comes in rest because frictional force of air works on it and the energy is wasted to work against it. This is not the violation of the law of conservation of energy.

Question 16.
An object of mass m is moving with a constant velocity, v. How much work should be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest ?
Answer:
An object of mass is moving with a constant velocity v, its kinetic energy is \(\frac {1}{2}\) mv². The work is equal to kinetic energy should be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest.

Question 17.
Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 km/h ?
Solution:
Here,
Mass of the car (m) = 1500 kg
Velocity of the car (v) = 60 km/h
= \(\frac{60 \times 1000}{3600}\) ms^-1 = \(\frac{50}{3}\) ms^-1
Thus, kinetic energy of the car = \(\frac {1}{2}\) mv² = \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 1500 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × \(\frac {1}{2}\)J = 208333.3 J
∴ The Work Required to be done to stop the car = 208333.3 J

Question 18.
In each of the following, a force F is acting on an object of mass m. The direction of displacement is from west to east shown by the longer arrow. Observe the diagrams carefully and state whether the work done by the force is negative, positive or zero.

Answer:
The work done in the first stage is zero, in the second stage is positive and in the third stage is negative.

Question 19.
Soni says that the acceleration in an object could be zero even when several forces are acting on it. Do you agree with her? Why?
Answer:
Yes, we agree with Soni because when several forces are acting on an object, the total effect of the force becomes zero, Thus, F = 0, from this, ma = 0, but m cannot be zero, Therefore, the acceleration can be zero.

Question 20.
Find the energy in kW h consumed in 10 hours by four devices of Dower 500 W each.
Solution:
Here,
The total power of four devices (P) = 500 W × 4 = 2000W
Time (t) = 10 hours
The energy consumed = Power × Time
= 2000 W × 10 h
\(\frac {20000}{1000}\) k Wh = 20kWh

Question 21.
A freely falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground. What happenes to its kinetic energy ?
Answer:
Its kinetic energy is transferred in potential energy.

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Tissues Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 6 Tissues

HBSE 9th Class Science Tissues Intext Questions and Answers

Questions from Sub-section 6.1

Question 1.
What is a tissue?
Answer:
A tissue is a group of similar cells that performs similar function.

Question 2.
What is the utility of tissues in multicellular organisms ?
Answer:
They help in efficient working of the body of such organisms.

Questions from Sub-section 6.2.2 (i)

Question 1.
Which gas is needed for photosynthesis?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 2.
State the role of transpiration in plants.
Answer:
In plants the role of transpiration is performed by leaves. There are many minute pores in the leaves of every plant. These pores are called stomata. There are guard cells on stomata which carry out the exchange of gases. These guard cells transpirate the water obtained from the earth.

Questions from Sub-section 6.2.2 (ii)

Question 1.
Name types of simple tissues.
Answer:
Simple tissues are of three types:
(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma.

Question 2.
Where is apical meristem found?
Answer:
It is located at the root and shoots tips.

Question 3.
Which tissue makes up the husk of coconut?
Answer:
Sclerenchymatous fibers make coconut husk.

Question 4.
What are the constituents of phloem?
Answer:
The constituents of phloem are:
1. sieve elements i. e., sieve cells, and sieve tubes
2. companion cells
3. phloem (bast) fibers
4. phloem parenchyma.

Questions from Sub-section 6.3.4

Question 1.
Name the tissue responsible for movement in our body.
Answer:
Muscular tissue.

Question 2.
What does a neuron look like?
Answer:
A neuron looks like a star having a tail.

Question 3.
Give three features of cardiac muscles.
Answer:
(i) Cardiac muscles are cylindrical, branched, and uninucleate.
(ii) They show faint cross striations.
(in) They are joined end to end by intercalated discs.

Question 4.
What are the functions of areolar tissue?
Answer:
(i) It binds muscles with skin.
(ii) It provides support to internal organs
(iii) It helps in repair of tissues.

HBSE 9th Class Science Tissues Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the term ‘tissue’.
Answer:
Tissue is a group of cells having a common origin, similar in structure and function.

Question 2.
How many types of elements together make up the xylem tissue?
Answer:
Four types of elements present in xylem are:
Tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma.

Question 3.
How are simple tissues different from complex tissues in the tissue? Name them.
Answer:
Simple plant tissues are made up of only one type of cells, e.g. parenchyma, whereas complex tissues are made up of many types of cells, e.g. xylem.

Question 4.
Differentiate between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma on the basis of their cell wall.
Answer:

Parenchyma:
Cells are thin walled.

Collenchyma:
There is movement in cell wall.

Scierenchyma:
Cell walls are highly thickened due to lignin deposition.

Question 5.
What are the functions of the stomata?
Answer:
The main functions of stomata are transpiration and the exchange of gases.

Question 6.
Diagrammatically show the difference between the three types of muscle fibres.
Answer:
Three types of muscle fibres:

Straited muscle:
1. These are elongated, cylindrical, unbranched and multinucleate
2. These are voluntary.
3. These are attached to bones.

Untreated muscle:
1. These are spindle-shaped and uninucleate.
2. These are involuntary
3. These are found in eyelit, and lungs.

Cardiac muscle:
1. These are cylindrical branched and uninucleate.
2. These are involuntary.
3. These are found in cardiac walls.

Question 7.
What is the specific function of the cardiac muscle?
Answer:
They undergo rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout life. They never get fatigued.

Question 8.
Differentiate between striated, unstriated, and cardiac muscles on the basis of their structure and site/location in the body.
Answer:

Cause of difference	Straited muscle	Unstraited muscle	Cardiac muscle
Site	These muscles work accordingly to our will.	These muscles do not work according to our will.	These muscles do their work themselves.
Location	They are attached to skeleton.	They are found in the walls of the organs of the body	They are found in the walls of heart.

Question 9.
Draw a labeled diagram of a neuron.
Answer:
Diagram of a neuron:

Question 10.
Name the following:
(a) Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth.
(b) Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans
(c) Tissue that transports food in plants.
(d) Tissue that stores fat in our body.
(e) Connective tissue with a fluid matrix.
(f) Tissue present in the brain.
Answer:
(a) Epithelial tissue (squamous epithelium).
(b) Tendon (a type of connective tissue).
(c) Sieve elements (phloem).
(d) Adipose tissue (a type of connective tissue).
(e) Vascular tissue (blood).
(f) Nervous tissue.

Question 11.
Identify the type of tissue in the following:
Skin, bark of tree, bone, lining of kidney tubule, vascular bundle.
Answer:
Skin: Epithelial tissue.
Bark of tree: Cork.
Bone: Connective tissue.
Lining of kidney tubule: Epithelial tissue (cubodial epithelium).
Vascular bundle: Sclerenchyma.

Question 12.
Name the regions in which parenchyma tissue is present.
Answer:
Parenchyma is present in stem, root, leaves, flowers and fruits. It is the most common plant tissue.

Question 13.
What is the role of epidermis in plants ?
Answer:
It protects the parts of the plant. It helps in protections against excessive water loss. It helps the plant parts from mechanical injuries and attack of parasites (fungi, bacteria etc.).

Question 14.
How does the cork act as protective tissue ?
Answer:
Cork cells are highly thick walled, dead and protective in nature. They have deposition of suberin. They check water loss and prevent the entry of harmful microbes into plant body.

Question 15.
Complete the table:

Answer:

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

HBSE 9th Class Science The Fundamental Unit of Life Intext Questions and Answers

Questions from Sub-section 5.1

Question 1.
Who discovered cells, and how?
Answer:
Cells were first discovered by Robert Hooke in 1665. He observed the cells in a cork slice with the help of a primitive microscope.

Question 2.
Why is the cell called the structural and functional unit of life?
Answer:
All living organisms are made up of cells. A single cell may constitute a whole organism as in Amoeba, Paramoecium, Chlamydomonas, etc. These organisms are called unicellular organisms. On the other hand, many cells group together in a single body and form various body parts in multicellular organisms such as plants and animals. Each cell performs certain basic functions that are characteristic of all living forms. Due to these reasons, a cell is called the structural and functional unit of life.

All living organisms are made up of cells. A single cell may constitute a whole organism as in Amoeba, Paramoecium, Chlamydomonas, etc. These organisms are called unicellular organisms. On the other hand, many cells group together in a single body and form various body parts in multicellular organisms such as plants and animals. Each cell performs certain basic functions that are characteristic of all living forms. Due to these reasons, a cell is called the structural and functional unit of life.

Questions from Sub-section 5.2.1

Question 1.
How do substances like CO₂ and water move in and out of the cell ? Discuss.
Answer:
CO₂ and water can move across the cell membrane by a process called diffusion. We know that movement of substances is from a region of high concentration to a region where concentration is low. When the concentration is high in the cell due to the increasing in the quantity of CO₂ and the concentration of outer environment is relatively low, just then due to a difference of concentration of CO₂ inside and outside a cell, CO₂ moves out of the cell from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration outside the cell by the process of diffusion. Similarly, molecule of water moves from outside (high concentration) to inside (low concentration) by the process of osmosis.

Question 2.
Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?
Answer:
Plasma membrane is made up of protein and lipid molecules. It acts as selectively permeable membrane:
1. ft allows the substances to enter, which are required by cell.
2. It does not allow the substances to enter, which are not required by cell.
3. It allow the substances to move out, which are not required by cell.
4. It does not allows the substances to move out, which are required by cell.
Due to above stated properties, plasma membrane is called selectively permeable membrane.

Questions from Sub-sections 5.2.2-5.2.4

Question 1.
Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Answer:

Prokaryotic cell	Eukaryotic cell
I. Size: generally small. (1-10μm) 1μm = 10-6m	1. Size: generally large. (5 – 100 μm)
2. Nuclear region: not well defined and is not surrounded by a nuclear membrane and is known as nucleoid.	2. Nuclear region: well defined and surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
3. Chromosome: single.	3. More than one chromosome.
4. Membrane-bound cell organelles absent.	4. Membrane-bound cell organelles present.

Questions from Sub-section 5.2.5

Question 1.
Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material ?
Answer:
(i) Nucleus
(ii) Mitochondria.

Question 2.
If the organization of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen ?
Answer:
The cell will not be able to perform its functions like respiration, protein synthesis, excretion, nutrition, etc.

Question 3.
Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?
Answer:
Lysosomes may digest their own cell under certain conditions when the cell is damaged. Therefore lysosomes are known as suicide bags.

Question 4.
Where are proteins synthesized inside the cell?
Answer:
Proteins are synthesized in ribosomes attached on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).

HBSE 9th Class Science The Fundamental Unit of Life Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Make a comparison and write down ways in which plants cells are different from animal cells.
Answer:
Differences between Plants and  are as follows:

Plant Cells:
1. Cell wall present outside the plasma membrane.
2. Centrosome and Golgilbodies are absent.
3. Plastids (chloroplasts and chromoplasts) present in cytoplasm.
4. Reserve food material is in the form of starch.
5. These have definite size.
6. It is usually larger in size.

Animal Cells:
1. Cell wall absent. Bounded by a thin living plasma membrane only.
2. Centrosomes and Golgibodies are present.
3. Plastids absent in cytoplasm.
4. Reserve food material is in the form of glycogen.
5. These have indefinite size.
6. It is comparatively smaller in size.

Question 2.
How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?
Answer:
Differences between prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cell are as follows:
Prokaryotic Cell:
1. Size is generally small (1-10 um).
2. Nuclear material (nucleoid) is not enclosed in a nuclear membrane.
3. Have a single chromosome.
4. Nucleolus absent.
5. Membrane-bound organelles absent.
6. Cell division occurs by fission or budding (no mitosis).

Eukaryotic Cell:
1. Size generally large (5-100 um).
2. Nuclear material is enclosed in a nuclear membrane.
3. Have more than one chromosome.
4. Nucleolus present.
5. Membrane-bound organelles present.
6. Cell division mitotic or meiotic.

Question 3.
What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?
Answer:
Plasma membrane separates the contents of the cell from its external environment. It also controls entry or exit of materials in and out of the cell. In case, a plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down, the above functions cannot be performed and the cell may die.

Question 4.
What w ould happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?
Answer:
Golgi apparatus performs the following important functions in the cell:
(i) It packages materials synthesised in E.R. and dispatches them to intercellular and extracellular targets.
(ii) It helps in the formation of cell plate in plant cells during cell division.
(iii) It is involved in synthesis of lysosomes and peroxisomes.
(iv) In some cases, complex sugars may be made from simple sugars in the Golgi apparatus.
The life of a cell will be affected for the above-mentioned functions if there is no Golgi apparatus.

Question 5.
Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?
Answer:
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell. They are called powerhouses of the cell because the energy required for various chemical activities needed for life is released by mitochondria in the form of ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) molecules. ATP is known as the energy currency of the cell.

Question 6.
Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesized?
Answer:
Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) has particles called ribosomes attached to its surface. The ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) helps in the synthesis of fat molecules, or lipids. Some of these proteins and lipids help in the building of cell membranes.

Question 7.
How does an Amoeba obtain its food?
Answer:
The flexibility of the cell membrane also enables the cell to engulf in food and other materials from its external environment. Such processes are known as endocytosis. Amoeba acquires its food through such processes.

Question 8.
What is osmosis?
Answer:
Osmosis is the passage of water from a region of high water concentration through a semi- permeable membrane to a region of low water concentration.

Question 9.
Carry out the following osmosis experiment:
Take four peeled potato halves and scoos each one out to make potato cups. One of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water. Now,
(a) Keep cup A empty
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D.

Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups and answer the following:
(i) Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion of B and C.
(ii) Why is potato A necessary for this experiment ?
(iii) Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D.
Answer:
(i) Water gathers in the hollowed portions of B and C due to the process of osmosis. Potato membrane acts as a semipermeable membrane and the medium surrounding it has a higher water concentration than the cell (potato). Thus, water enters by osmosis.
(ii) Potato A necessary, because it acts as a control experiment.
(iii) Water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D because of the following reasons:
1. Water does not enter in the hollowed out portion of A, because the cup is empty.
2. Water does not enter in the hollowed out portion of D, because the potato used in experiment is a boiled one.
On boiling, the cell dies and the selective permeability of the membrane is lost.

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms

HBSE 9th Class Science Diversity in Living Organisms Intext Questions and Answers

Questions from Sub-section 7

Question 1.
Why do we classify organisms?
Answer:
Various kind of animals and plants occur on earth/world. For example, on one hand in world, we have microscopic bacteria of a few micrometres in size, on the other hand we have long organisms like blue whale of approximate sizes of 30 metres. While redwood trees of size 100 metres are found in California. Their age and structures are different. Some organisms have simple structures while.some have complex. Therefore, to make easy the study of various forms of life, they are classified on the basis of similarities and dissimilarities.

Question 2.
Give three examples of the range of variations that you see in life forms around you.
Answer:
(1) On one hand in the world, we have microorganisms like bacteria which can be viewed under a microscope, on the other hand we have 30 metres long blue whale.
(2) 100 metres long red wood trees are found in California whereas lichen, are visible merely like small spots.
(3) Tortoise remains alive for three hundreds years. While insects like mosquitoes have a life-span of a few days.

Questions from Sub-section 7.1

Question 1.
Which do you think is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms ?
(i) the place where they live. (A) the kind of cells they are made. Why ?
Answer:
(A) The kind of cells they are made. It is a basic characteristic of classification because organisms with, nucleated cells have their pathways organised in very different ways than the organisms without nucleated cells.

Question 2.
What is the primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made?
Answer:
Greek thinker Aristotle classified organisms according to whether they lived on land, water and air.

Question 3.
On what bases are plants and animals put into different categories?
Answer:
Plants and animals are classified on the basis of cell wall found in their cells. Plants contain cell wall while animals are not.

Questions from Sub-section 7.2

Question 1.
Which organisms are called primitive and how are they different from the so-called advanced organisms?
Answer:
The earlier developed organisms on the earth are called primitive organisms. Another kind of organism means developed organisms from lower organisms are called advanced organisms.

Question 2.
Will advanced organisms be the same as complex organisms? Why?
Answer:
Yes, advanced organisms are complex organisms because earlier organisms are developed by complexity. So simple organisms changed into advanced organisms.

Questions from Sub-section 7.3

Question 1.
What is the criterion for the classification of organisms as belonging to the kingdom Monera or Protista?
Answer:
Cell structure, mode of nutrition and body organisation are the basis of the classification of Monera or Protista.

Question 2.
In which kingdom will you place an organism which is single-celled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic?
Answer:
Plantae.

Question 3.
In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will have the smallest number of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common and which will have the largest number of organisms?
Answer:
The group ‘species’ will have the smallest number of organisms with maximum common characteristics. The largest number of organisms is placed in the ‘kingdom.’

Questions from Sub-section 7.4

Question 1.
Which division among plants has the simplest organisms?
Answer:
Thallophyta.

Question 2.
How are pteridophytes different from the phanerogams?
Answer:
Pteridophytes:
These are lower categories plants. Their body divided into roots, stem and leaves. They have well-developed vascular tissues, the xylem and phloem. The mature leaves bear spores inside sporangia. After fertilization, the embryo developed inside them, e.g. fern.

Phanerogams:
These are higher categories plants. Roots, stem, leaves, flower, fruit and seeds are found in them. They are produced sexually by means of seeds, e.g. wheat, maize, etc.

Question 3.
How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from each other?
Answer:
There are the following differences between gymnosperms and angiosperms
Gymnosperms:
1. They have naked seeds.
2. Seeds are not enclosed in the fruit.
3. They are mostly found in mountain plants.
4. Pine and Cycas are its examples.

Angiosperms:
1. They have not naked seeds.
2. Seeds are enclosed in the fruit.
3. These are almost found in all groups of land plants.
4. Pea and wheat are its examples.

Questions from Sub-section 7.5

Question 1.
How do poriferan animals differ from Coelenterate animals ?
Answer:
There are following differences between Poriferan animals and Coelenterate animals :
Poriferan:
1. They are the simplest multicellular animals.
2. They bear pores all over the body.
3. They are flat, round sac or branched in shape like vase.
4. They are sessile.
5. They possess skeleton made up of spongin.
For example: Sycon, Spongilla.

Coelenterate:
1. They are complex multicellular animals.
2. They do not bear pores on the body.
3. They bear tentacles in the body.
4. They are sessile but some are free swimming.
5. They possess outer skeleton made up of lime.
For example: Hydra, Physalia.

Question 2.
How do Annelid animals differ from Arthropods ?
Answer:
There are following differences between Annelid and Arthropods animals :
Annelida:
1. It is the smallest phylum.
2. They are segmented externally.
3. They have closed circulatory system.
4. They have no compound eyes.
5. Their body is not divided into head, thorax and abdomen.
6. They are bisexual.
Examples: Earthworm, Leach and Nereis.

Arthropoda:
1. It is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom.
2. They are covered externally by jointed exoskeleton.
3. They have an open circulatory system.
4. They have compound eyes.
5. Their body is divided into three parts head, thorax and abdomen.
6. They are unisexual.
Examples: Butterfly, Spider, Housefly and Prawn etc.

Question 3.
What are the differences between Amphibians and Reptiles ?
Answer:
There are following differences between Amphibians and Reptiles:
Amphibians:
1. They live in or near freshwater and moist land.
2. Their body lacks scales.
3. Respiration occurs by gills, lungs or skin.
4. They can move their eyelids.
5. They are cold blooded vertebrates.
Examples: Frog, Bufo and Hyla etc.

Reptiles:
1. They mostly live on land.
2. Their body have scales.
3. Respiration occurs by lungs only.
4. They cannot do so.
5. They are cold blooded terrestrial or aquatic.
Examples: Lizard, Chameleon and Snake etc.

Question 4.
What are the differences between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in the mammalia group ?
Answer:
There are following differences between aves group and mammalia group:
Aves:
1. Their body is covered by feathers.
2. They lay eggs.
3. Teeth are absent in their beak.
4. They have wave like body.
5. Their bones have air cavities.
6. Air sacs are present in their lungs.
Examples: Parrot, Pigeon and Crow.

Mammalia:
1. Their body is covered by hair.
2. They give birth to their young ones.
3. Teeth are present in their mouth.
4. They have not.
5. They have solid bones.
6. Air sacs are not present in their lungs.
Examples: Human, Cow and Bat.

HBSE 9th Class Science Diversity in Living Organisms Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of classifying organisms ?
Answer:
There are following advantages of classifying organisms:
(1) Classification makes the study of organisms easy.
(2) It helps to understand the origin of organisms and their interrelationship.
(3) It gives an idea of similarities and dissimilarities between organisms.
(4) It works as a base for other branches of biology.
(5) It projects before us a picture of all life forms clearly.

Question 2.
How would you choose between two characteristics to be used for developing hierarchy in classification?
Answer:
There are two characteristics to be used for developing hierarchy in classification: cell structure and body organisation. They are developing a hierarchy in classification. Body organisation is the main character in which body parts do work.

Question 3.
Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms.
Answer:
There are the following main criteria on the basis of Whittaker’s five kingdoms :
1. Monera: Cell wall present in these unicellular prokaryotic organisms. They can be both autotrophic or heterotrophic. Examples: Bacteria, Blue-green algae, Mycoplasma.

2. Protista: These are unicellular eukaryotic, autotrophic, heterotrophic or both. Cilia or flagella are found in them for moving. Examples: Paramecium, Unicellular algae, Protozoans, Diatoms, etc.

3. Fungi: These are heterotrophic eukaryotic organisms. They use decaying organic material as food. So they called saprophytes. They have cell walls made of a tough complex sugar called chitin. Examples: Yeast, Mushrooms, Agaricus, etc.

4. Plantae: They are multicellular eukaryotes and autotrophs organisms having cell wall. They use chlorophyll for photosynthesis. Example: All green plants.

5. Animalia: They all are multicellular eukaryotic heterotrophic organisms. Cell wall is not present in them.

Question 4.
What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is the basis for these divisions?
Answer:
The major divisions in Plantae are :
(i) Thallophyta
(ii) Bryophyta
(iii) Pteridophyta
(iv) Gymnosperms
(v) Angiosperms.

The basis of these divisions are –
(i) Differentiation of plant body into distinct components
(ii) Special tissues for the transportation of water and other substances
(iii) Ability to bear seeds, naked or enclosed in fruits.

Question 5.
How are the criteria for deciding divisions in plants different from the criteria for deciding the subgroups among animals ?
Answer:
Mostly the body of all the plants is developed according to their capacity to make food. Although, the growth of animals’ bodies depends on the food getting from other sources. It is the main basis of classification between animals and plants because plants are autotrophs and animals are heterotrophs.

Question 6.
Explain how animals in Vertebrata are classified into further subgroups.
Answer:
All chordates possess the following features:
(i) Notochord
(ii) dorsal nerve cord
(iii) triploblastic
(iv) paired gill pouches
(v) coelomate.

Vertebrates are grouped into five classes:
1. Pisces:
(i) They are water-living animals found in both saline and freshwater.
(ii) They lay eggs and poikilothermic animals.
(iii) Their skin is covered with scales.
(iv) Their body is streamlined.
(v) Respiration occurs by gills.
(vi) They have two-chambered hearts.
(vii) They have fins on their body.
Examples:
Torpedo, Rohu, Shark, Tuna, Scoliodon, Sea horse, Electric ray.

2. Amphibia:
(i) They live in freshwater and moist land.
(ii) Their body is without scales.
(iii) Most of them have two pairs of pentadactyl (five digits) limbs.
(iv) Respiration occurs by gills, lungs or skin.
(v) They have a three-chambered heart.
Examples:
Frog, Toad, Hyla.

3. Reptilia:
(i) They are mostly land vertebrates.
(ii) Their skin is covered by scales.
(iii) Respiration occurs by lungs only,
(iv) They have a three-chambered heart. Only crocodiles have a four-chambered heart.
(v) They are unisexual.
Examples:
Hemidactylus (Lizard), Chameleon, Draco (Flying Lizard).

4. Aves:
(i) They are found all over the world.
(ii) Forelimbs are modified into wings.
(iii) Body covered with feathers.
(iv) Endoskeleton is made up of light bones with air cavities.
(v) Teeth are not present in their beak.
(vi) Respiration is by lungs only. Lungs have air sacs.
(vii) Heart is completely four-chambered.
Examples: Pigeon, Peacock, Sparrow, Ostrich, etc.

5. Mammalia:
(i) They are often found inland areas.
(ii) Their body is covered by hair.
(iii) Respiration in them occur by lungs only.
(iv) They have a completely four-chambered heart.
(v) They have mammary glands to nourish their young ones.
(vi) They are unisexual.
Examples: Kangaroo, Rat, Whale, Squirrel, Elephant, Rabbit, Bat, Chimpanzee, Man, etc.

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Civics Electoral Politics Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.
(b) People select the representative of their choice in an election.
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary.
(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer.
Answer:
(a) true
(b) true
(c) false
(d) false.

Question 2.
Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic ?’
(a) India has the largest number of voters in die world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.
Answer:
(a) The largest number of voters in the world are in China and not in India. On this ground, we can not say that the Indian elections are not democratic.
(b) The fact that the Election Commission is very powerful does not make the Indian elections, democratic.

Question 3.
Match the following:

A. It is necessary to keep the voters list up to date because	1. there is a fair representation of all sections of our society
B. Some constituen-cies are reserved for SCs.and STs so that	2. everyone has equal opportunity to elect their re-presentative
C. Everyone has one and only one vote so that	3. all candidates must have a fair chance of compe-ting in elections
D. Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because	4. some people may have moved away from the area where they vote last.

Answer:

A. It is necessary to keep the voters list up to date because	4. some people may have moved away from the area where they vote last.
B. Some constituen-cies are reserved for SCs.and STs so that	1. there is a fair representation of all sections of our society
C. Everyone has one and only one vote so that	2. everyone has equal opportunity to elect their re-presentative
D. Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because	3. all candidates must have a fair chance of compe-ting in elections

Question 4.
List all the different election-related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities are given below releasing election manifestos; counting of vote; making of voters list; election campaign; declaration of election results; casting of votes; ordering of re-poll; announcing election schedule; filing nomination.
Answer:
Making of voters list, announcing elections, filing nomination, releasing election manifests, election campaign, casting of votes, ordering re-poll, counting of votes, declaration of election results.

Question 5.
Surekha is an officer in charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what should she focus on for each of the following stages of the election”:
(a) Election campaign
(b) Polling day
(c) Counting day.
Answer:
(a) She should focus on the observance of election rules in the election campaigns.
(b) She should focus that all arrangements have been done necessary for polling day.
(c) She should focus on the fact that all arrangements for counting of votes have been done.

Question 6.
The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidates who won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of these communities in the population of the US. Based on this, would you suggest a system of reservations in the US Congress? If yes, why and for which communities? If no, why not?

	The proportion of the community (in percent) in the
	House of Representatives	Population of US
Blacks	8	13
Hispanics	5	13
Whites	86	70

Answer:
A system of representation in the US Congress is required. The whites have a population of 70% while their representation is 86%. Hispanics are 13% of the population while they are only 5% in the US Congress. Similar, though less, representation of blacks is there is the US Congress Democracy demands population be represented, as J. S. Mill had said, proportionately and not disproportionately.

Question 7.
Can we draw the following conclusions from the information given in this chapter? Give two facts to support your position for each of these.
(a) Election Commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country.
(b) There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country.
(c) It is very easy for the party in power to win an election.
(d) Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair.
Answer:
(a) Election Commission should be given enough powers (i) to conduct elections fair and free, (ii) to see that the political parties conduct themselves according to the laws.
(b) (i) Popular participation strengthens democracy; (ii) It helps people attain political education.
(c) (i) Parties do election campaigning; (ii) They issue their election manifestos on the eve of elections.
(d) (i) Election identity cards be issued to stop lake voting; (ii) Money and muscle power need to be discouraged.

Question 8.
Chinappa was convicted for torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections?
Answer:
This decision of the court disallowing Chinappa and Satbir to contest elections is not against the principles of democratic elections. The court has the power to give such a decision.

Question 9.
Here are some reports of electoral malpractices from different parts of the world. Is there anything that these countries can learn from India to improve their elections? What would you suggest in each case?

(a) During an election in Nigeria, the officer in charge of counting votes deliberately increased the votes of one candidate and declared him elected. The court later found out that more than five lakh votes cast for one candidate were counted in favor of another.

(b) Just before the elections of Fiji, a pamphlet was distributed warning voters that a vote for former Prime Minister, Mahendra Chowdhary will lead to bloodshed, This was a threat to voters of Indian origin.

(c) In the US, each state has its own method. of voting, its own procedure of counting, and its own authority for conducting elections. Authorities in the state of Florida took many controversial decisions that favored Mr. Bush in the presidential elections in 2000. But no one could change those decisions.
Answer:
(a) The officer in charge of counting should learn to form the Indian election system that he has no such power. The officer has to see that the votes are counted in an honest manner.
(b) Such a pamphlet is against the democratic spirit. Mahendra Chaudhary was a Fiji citizen, though he was of Indian origin. No one should have the right to dissuade, through threats, voters.
(c) All election rules should be uniform- and should be uniform, applied. This is what is the essence of democracy.

Question 10.
Here are some reports of malpractices in Indian elections. Identify what the problem in each case is. What should be done to correct the situation?
(a) Following the announcement of the elections, the minister promised to provide financial aid to reopen the closed sugar mill.
(b) Opposition parties alleged that their statements and campaign was not given due attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio.
(c) An inquiry by the Election Commission showed that electoral rolls of a state contain names of 20 lakh fake voters..
(d) The hoodlums of a political party were moving with guns, physically preventing supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of other parties.
Answer:
(a) This is against election rules. After the announcement of elections/announcement of any benefit amounts to influencing the voters. Minister’s activity was against the eligibility norms.
(b) All the political parties, opposition including, should be given due attention by the governmental media. The complaint of the opposition parties was perfectly in order.
(c) Electoral list has to be correctly prepared. Hence fake votes have to be deleted. The preparation of the electoral list has to be done much before the elections.
(d) Muscle power, during the election, is against the eligibility norms. Strict laws should be strictly applied.

Question 11.
Aran was not in class when this chapter was being taught He came the next day and repeated what he had heard from his father. Can you tell Ramesh what is wrong with these statements?
(a) Women always vote the way men tell them to. So what is the point of giving them to right to vote?
(b) Party politics creates tension in society. Elections should be decided by consensus not by competition.
(c) Only graduates should be allowed to stand as candidates for elections,
Answer:
(a) The statement is wrong. Women do not vote, as their men-folk tell them. If they do so, so do the men when their women folk tell them. Should we deny men the right to vote?
(b) The statement is wrong. It is almost impossible to have elections without political parties. Partyless democracy is an impossibility.
(e) The statement is wrong. Giving the
educational qualifications as requisite for contesting elections is not accepted these days.

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Civics Electoral Politics Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is considered as the barometer of democracy?
Answer:
Elections.

Question 2.
What is known as the life-line of the election procedure?
Answer:
The political parities are known as the life line of the election procedure.

Question 3.
Name the state where the National Conference is active in’politics.
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 4.
In which state AI’ADMK is a prominent party?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
What is the name of the Chief Election Commissioner during whose tenure a large number of electoral -reforms were carried out?
Answer:
T. N. Shah.

Question 6.
What are the means Of electronic media?
Answer.
1. Radio
2. Television
3. Cinema.

Question 7.
By whom the election procedure of our country is controlled?
Answer:
By the Election Commission.

Question 8.
What is the election called which is held when Lok Sabha or the State Assembly is dissolved before die expiry of its full term?
Answer:
Mid-term election.

Question 9.
What is meant by an election?
Answer:
An election is a contest that is held between different political parties in order to get people’s support.

Question 10.
On which principle is the system of universal adult franchise based?
Answer:
On the principle of “one person one vote”.

Question 11.
What do you mean by democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is the form of the government “which is elected by the people, ruled by the people and works for the welfare of the people. .

Question 12.
What is meant by political equality?
Answer:
Political equality is the situation every political party has an equal right to fight’ elections.

Question 13.
What is the difference between a party candidate and an independent candidate?
Answer:
A party candidate fights an election on the basis of the principles of the party he belongs. He uses the party .election symbol as his electioti symbol. On the other hand, an independent candidate fights elections on his own principles. He uses the symbol provided, by the Election Commission especially to him.

Question 14.
Why are the symbols allotted to die political parties?
Answer:
The parties are allotted different symbols so that they can haye their distinct identity and a voter can easily identify to which party candidate he is going to vote.

Question 15.
Which political party did Chanudhary Devi Lai.form in 1987?
Answer:
Lok Dal.

Question 16.
Which movement did Chaudhary Devi Lai launch in 1987?
Answer:
Nyaya Yudh.

Question 17.
Which party ruled before the elections in Haryana before 1987?
Answer:
The Congress Party.

Question 18.
Which party formed the government after 1987 elections?
Answer:
The Lok Dal.

Question 19.
Was DeVi Lai very popular at that time?
Answer:
Yes, Devi Lai was very popular at. that time.

Question 20.
Did Lok Dal make arty promises to people?
Answer:
The Lok Dal headed by Devi Lai promised to build a new Haryana.

Question 21.
Did Devi Lai fulfill a promise to waive farmer loans on becoming Chief Minister?
Answer:
Yes, after, becoming Chief Minister, Devi Lai fulfilled the promise he made in the election campaign by passing an order waiving the loans of the
farmers, agricultural laborers, and small shopkeepers.

Question 22.
Devi Lai had not given any manifesto to the people. What are the other means by which people could know about his priorities?
Answer:
Devi Lai’s approach was direct- talking to liis audience.

Question 23.
What are the different methods used by political parties during the election campaign to seek vote?
Answer:
Processions, public meetings, door to door campaign, holding corner meetings, distributing pamphlets, badges etc.

Question 24.
How many seats did the Lok Dal also capture in the 1987 elections?
Answer:
60 seats out of 90; Lok Dal together with Bhartiya Janata Party captured 76 seats.

Question 25.
How many seats did the Congress Party obtain in 1987?
Answer:
5 seats.

Question 26.
Why are elections considered essential for any representative democracy in our times?
Answer:
The elections are considered essential for democracy because of the following reasons:
1. The voters are able to choose who will make laws for them.
2. They can choose who will sit in government and take major decisions.
3. They can choose the party whose ‘ policies will guide the government and law making.

These choices are not made once and for all. In a democratic elections, the people get a chance to make a fresh choice after some time. If they want they can retain the same party’, the same government and the same representatives. But if they are hot, satisfied with the performance of any of these, they can make a change at that level or at all the levels. This ensures that representatives remain answerable to the people.

Question 27.
It is said that elections are about political competition. Explain.
Answer:
Elections are all about political competition. The competition takes various forms. The most obvious form is the competition among political parties. At the level of constituency, it takes the form of competition among several candidates. Very often the competition turns into a personality race among the top leaders of various parties. Elections also involve competition among various policies and ideologies. If there is no competition, there is no point in having elections.

Question 28.
“Political competition provide a system of rewards and punishment”. Discuss.
Answer:
Political competition provides a system of rewards and punishment. It is a system where political leaders are rewarded for good work and punished for not serving the people. It is like school examinations; There is no need for examinations if we could be sure that all the students will study sincerely all the time. But we cannot be sure of that. That is why, We have examinations as a system of rewards and punishment.

Question 29.
A political party won the elections in 1986. Since then no new elections have taken place and that party continues to run the government. Is this country democratic today? Give your reasons to argue for or against it. Why should it be necessary to contest elections again and again?
Answer:
In any democracy, elections have not to be only free and fair, they have to be conducted timely also, A political party, winning the elections and forming the government can not remain in power for ever, nor that country be called democratic. For a country to be called democratic, elections have to be conducted frequently, i.e. at fixed times, and regularly as well.

Question 30.
Based on this account of Haryana. elections, are the following statements correct? Give facts from that example to support what you say.
(a) The party that ruled before the elections and the one that formed government after the elections was the same.
(b) Devi Lai fulfilled his promise to waive farmer loans on becoming chief minister.
(c) People vote. They can vote in support of the existing government or support another party.
(d) Members of the majority party elect their leader. This person becomes the chief minister.
(e) Political parties tell the voters as to what they would do if voted to power.
(f) Political parties make their promises’ known to voters in a statement, called election manifesto.
(g) The contesting parties appeal to voters on the basis of a slogan.
Answer:
(a) No, party that ruled before the elections was the Congress Party; party that ruled after the elections was the Lok Dal
(b) It is correct : Devi Lai fulfilled the promise to waive the farmers’ loans after he took over as the chief minister.
(c) Yes, by voting, the people either support the existing, government or can support another party.
(d) True, the members of the legislature belonging to the majority party elect their leader; the leader is appointed, the chief minister, if the party belongs to a state.
(e) This is done by the political parties by issuing its election manifesto; promises made to the voters.
(f) Correct: this is what the election manifesto does.
(g) This is also true; numerous political parties resort to slogans: Devi Lai used the slogan in 1987; it was ‘Bharashtachar band aur pani ka prabhandh.

Question 32.
What type of legal declaration is given when the nomination form is filled?
Answer:
Every candidate, contesting elections, has to make a legal declaration giving details of:
1. Serious criminal cases.pending against them.
2. Details of their and their family assets and liabilities.
3. Education qualifications.
This system was started after, an important judgment of the Supreme Court of India.

Question 33.
What may be the reason to insist on a detailed statement of assets and liabilities?
Answer:
The reason to insist on a detailed statement of assets and liabilities is to avoid the risk of the candidate’s amassing money through unfair meansr:

Question 34.
Give some of the successful slogans by different political parties in various elections in India in the past.
Answer:
Some of the successful slogans are asunder:
The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi gave the slogan of “Remove Poverty” (Garibi Hatao) in the Lok Sabha elections of 1971. The party promised to recurrent all the policies of the government to remove poverty from the country. “Save Democracy” was the slogan used by Janata Party in the next Lok Sabha election held in 1977.

The party promised to undo the excesses committed during Emergency and restore civil liberties. The Left Front used the slogan of “Land to the Tiller” in the West Bengal assembly elections held in 1977. “Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugus” was the slogan used by N. T. Rama Rao, the leader of the Telugu Desam Party in Andhra Pradesh assembly elections in 1983.

Question 35.
Give details of the election laws which prohibit the candidates when they indulge in election campaign.
Answer:
According to our election laws, no party or candidate can:
1. Bribe or threaten the voters.
2. Appeal to them in the name of caste or religion etc.
3. Use government resources for election campaign.
4. Spend more than Rs. 25 Lakh for a Lok Sabha election or Rs. 10 Lakhs in an assembly election.
If they do so/their election can be rejected by court even after they have been declared elected.

Minimum conditions of a Democratic Elections First, everyone should be able to choose; Everyone can vote and every vote should have equal value. Second, there should be something to choose from. Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters. Third, the voice should be offered at regular intervals. Elections must be held regularly after every few years. Fourth, the candidate preferred by the people should get elected. Fifth, elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they really wish.

Question 36.
Mention the details about a model code of conduct for the election campaign as agreed by all the political parties in India.
Answer:
The following sum up the Model Code of conduct for the election campaign:
1. Any place of worship shall not be used for election propaganda.
2. Criticisms of the opponents shall be limited to their policies, programs, past records and work and will not mention their personal lives.
3. No flags, banners, notices, or slogans shall be placed on any building without the permission of the owner.
4. government transport including official aircraft, vehicles, machinery and personnel shall not be used by ministers and the ruling party.
5. The ministers shall not lay the foundation stones of any projects or make any promises of providing public facilities after elections have been announced.

Question 37.
Explain Universal Adult Franchise.
Answer:
The Universal Adult Franchise refers to the enjoyment of right to vote by all the adult citizens of the county, without any discrimination i.e., on the basis of caste, creed, colour, sex, education and place of birth. It is a well-known fact that every citizen of India who is 18 years of age and above and who is not otherwise disqualified, is entitled to vote in the elections.

Question 38.
“It is said elections are the barometers of Democracy”. What do you understand by this sentence? ‘
Answer:
In a democratic form of government, tiie elections are considered as barometers of democracy because the elections are very crucial in a democratic set up. Elections provide opportunity to the people to judge the performance of the representatives. Elections also generate a new political attitude which can determine the future course of the country at. large.

Question 39.
Write a short note on the Election Commission.
Answer:
The election commission is the highest body in our country to conduct elections. It not only conducts tire elections but also controls and even supervises this process. All elections to the parliament and to the state legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice President are conducted by the Election commission. It is the Electipn Commission that fixes and announces the dates of the elections in our country. The Election Commission also makes sure that the party in power does not take undue advantage over other parties.

Question 40.
What is meant by Election Petition?
Answer:
When a candidate is not satisfied about the way the elections have been held in his constituency, he Can file a petition in the court and question the election of another candidate. This kind of petition is’called an election petition. Being accepted, this kind of petition leads to by-election to that particular seat.

Question 41.
What is the importance of the electoral symbols ?
Or
Why that different political parties are given different electoral symbols ?
Answer:
All the political parties as well as the independent candidates also are allotted symbols by the Election Commission. All the major well-Renown political parties have been allotted permanent symbols. These symbols are well-known and quite popular among the public An Indian can easily recognize a Congress candidate by the symbol of palm as well a BJP candidate by the lotus.

Election symbols are allotted mainly, because of the following reasons:
1. These symbols help the ordinary man and even an illiterate to recognise the parties.
2. These symbols help the. political parties to arrange their processions and meetings and carry on their propaganda from street to street.
3. Symbols also help in the situation when there are more than one candidate of the same name in the same constituency
4. In fact symbols make it easy to caste one’s vote.

Question 42.
State briefly the importance of regular electoral competitions.
Answer:
Regular electoral competition provides incentives to political parties and leaders. They know that if they do good work that would make them popular and increase their chaiices of victory in the next elections. But if, they fail to satisfy the voters with their work they will not be able ta win again. So, if a political party or leader was motivated only by desire to be in power and to continue to be so, even then they would be forced to serve the people.

This is a bit like market. Even if a shopkeeper is in terested, only in his profit, he is forced to give good service to the customers, If he does not, the customer will go to some other shop. Similarly, political competition may cause divisions and some ugliness, but it finally, helps to force political parties and leaders to serve the people.

Question 43.
How is tjie election process complete in a country?
Answer:
The following steps are the major ones in the election process in our country:
1. Elections are announced together with their dates for purposes such’as of nomination filling ‘forms, scrutiny etc.,
2. The Election Commission makes sure that the political party in power does not take any undue advantage over other parties.
3. The candidates fill up the nomination papers.
4. The nomination papers or the applications are scrutinized.
5. The candidates not willing to contest any more withdraw their candidature.
6. The final list of the candidates is published. ,
7. Campaigning done by the candidates and their supporters.
8. On the day of the election, casting of votes is performed in a free and fair atmosphere.
9. After the counting, results are announced. Thus, the election procedure in Our country is completed.

Question 44.
Prepare a brief list of the minimum conditions of any democratic elections.
Answer:
The following is the list of minimum conditions in any democratic elections :
1. First, everyone should be able to choose. This means that everyone should have one vote and every vote should have equal value.
2. Second, there should be something to chose from/Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters.
3. Third; the choice should be offered at regular intervals. Elections must be held regularly after every few years,
4. Fourth, whoever people choose should get elected. Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they really wish.

Question 45.
Give a brief account of election campaign.
Answer:
The main purpose of an election is to give people a chance to choose the representatives, the government and’ the policies they prefer. Therefore, it is necessary to have a free and.open discussion about who is a better representative, which party will give a better government or what.is a good policy. This is what happens during the election campaigns. In our country, there are two weeks between the declaration of candidates and the polling of votes.

During this period the candidates contact their voters, political leaders address election meetings and political parties mobilise their supporters. This is also, the period when newspapers, and television news are full of election related stories and debates. But election campaign is not limited to the two weeks only. Political parties start preparing for election, months before the election actually takes place.

Question 46.
State briefly some challenges to free and fair election.
Answer:
There are always challenges to free and fair elections. Some of these are:
1. Candidates and parties with a lot of money may not be sure of their victory, but they do enjoy a big and unfair advantage over others.
2. In some parts of the country, candidates with criminal connections have been able to push others out of the electoral race and secure ‘ticket7 from more parties;
3. Very often elections offer little choice to ordinary citizens, for both the major parties are similar to each other and do not wish to raise any major issue;
4. Smaller parties and independent candidates suffer a huge disadvantage compared to bigger parties; and
5; Election campaign often does not raise any basic questions and therefore doeit not offer any real voice to the. people.

Question 47.
What is the importance of the independent Election Commission? How does such a commission help ensure free and fair elections?
Answer:
In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and very powerful Election Commission. A Commission enjoys the same kind of independence that the judiciary enjoys. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India. But once appointed the Chief Election Commissioner is not answerable to the President or the government. Even if the ruling party or the government does not like what the Commission does, it is virtually impossible for it to remove the CEC. The Election Commission is a very powerful body.

• Our Constitution gives it tire power to take decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the declaration of elections to the declaration of .results;
• The Commission lias the pow’er to imple¬ment the Code of Conduct and punish any a candidates or party that violates it;
• During the period of the elections, the EC can order, the government to follow some guidelines, including transferring some government officials like the Collector or SP; and
• When government officers work on elec¬tion duty, they are under the control of the EC and not the government.

Question 48.
Why are certain constituencies reserved and for whom?
Answer:
There are some constituencies which are reserved for people who belong to the Scheduled Castes [SC] and Scheduled Tribes (ST). In reserved (SC) constituency, only someone who belongs to the Scheduled Caste can stand for election. Similarly, only those belonging to Scheduled Tribe can contest. election from a reserved (ST) constituency.

The number of seats so reserved is in proportion to their population. Currently, in the Lok Sabha 79 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 41 for the Scheduled Tribes. In the panchayat and nagrapalika elections, one-third of the seats are reserved in a similar manner for women candidates. In many states, seats in panchayat and Nagar Palika are reserved for Other Backward Classes as well. This varies from state to state.

Why do we have this system? Isn’t this system unfair to those from other communities? It might seem so. But the gains of this system are mhch bigger. This system makes pur democracy a representative democracy. If there were no system of reservation, very few persons form the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes would have been elected to the Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabhas. They would not have had the resources. the education and conditions to contest elections against others.

They would have been discriminated against by others and prevented from winning elections. If that had happened, our parliament and assemblies would have been deprived of the voice of a significant section of our population. In any case the reserved seats do not take away the legitimate share of anyone else. The proportion of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Tribes is exactly in proportion to their share in population. In fact, inspired by the success of this system, women’s movement has been demanding a similar system for women as well.

Question 49.
Give a list of slogan raised during elections.
Answer:
In election campaigns, political parties try to focus public attention on some big issues. They want to attract the public to that issue and get them to vote for their party on that basis. Let us look at some oi the successful slogans givne by different political parties in various elections. The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi gave the solgan of Garibi Hatao (Remove poverty) in the Lok Sabha elections of 1971. The party promised to reorient all the policies of the government to remove them. poverty from the country.

Save Democracy was the slogan given by Janata Party in the next Lok Sabha election held in 1977. The party promised to undo the excesses committed during the Emergency and restore civil liberties. The Left Front used the slogan of Land to the Tiller in the West Bengal Assembly elections held in 1977. Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugus was the slogan used by N. T. Rama rao, the leader of the Telugu Desam Party in the Andhra Pradesh Assembly elections in* 1983.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before the incorrect sentences:
(i) The election in our country is conducted by secret ballot.
(ii) The candidates are given a date for withdrawal of their names.
(iii) Elections are the barometers of democracy.
(iv) Radio is a medium of the expression of the. public opinion.
(v) Correct reporting is dependent on the freedom of the press.
(vi) No one can predict the result of an election.
(vii) The influence of the opposition parties spread over the whole country.
Answer:
(i) ✓
(ii) ✓
(iii) ✓
(iv) ✓
(v) ✓
(vi) ✓
(vii) ✗

Question 2.
Complete the following sentences
(i) In 1998, general -elections, …………… formed the government at the center.
(ii) A single party getting the majority or …………… of parties form the government.
(iii) ………….. is the electoral symbol of the Congress.
(iv) The candidates are given a ………… for withdrawal of their names.
(v) Election …………… carry party’s promises about major issues.
(vi) In the general elections of …………… the Congress party was defeated for the first time.
Answer:
(i) Coalition
(ii) Group
(iii) Hand
(iv) Date
(v) Manifestoes
(vi) 1977

Question 3.
Choose the Correct-answer from the alternatives given below:
(i) The following type of Samiti Devi Lai had formed in 1987:
(a) Nyaya
(b) Sanghparash
(c) Vidhan
(d) Sewa
Answer:
(b) Sanghparash

(ii) The Devi Lai Lok Dal party obtained the following number of seats in the Haryana Vidhan Sabha:
(a) 50
(b) 55
(c) 60
(d) 65
Answer:
(c) 60

(iii) The current Lok Sabha strength is:
(a) 540
(b) 541
(c) 542
(d) 543
Answer:
(d) 543

(iv) Currently, the number of the Scheduled Castes seats in the Lok Sabha are:
(a) 76
(b) 77
(c) 78
(d) 79
Answer:
(d) 79

(v) Currently, the number of the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is
(a) 41
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 44
Answer:
(a) 41

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Science Solutions Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings

HBSE 9th Class Science Matter in Our Surroundings Intext Questions and Answers

Questions from Sub-sections 1.1,1.2

Question 1.
Which of the following matter? Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold drink, the smell of perfume.
Answer:
Chair, air, almonds and cold drink matter because they occupy space and mass.

Question 2.
Give reasons for the following observation:
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.
Answer:
Since, the diffusion becomes faster with increase in temperature, therefore the smell of hot sizzlin? food reaches us from several metres away, whereas to smell the flavour of cold food, we have to go close to them.

Question 3.
A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool? Which property of matter does this observation show?
Answer:
Due to comparatively more distance in between the particles of water, it has the property of compressibility in it, for this reason, a diver ables to cut through water in the swimming pool.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?
Answer:
The characteristics of the particles of matter are as follows:
(1) The particles of matter have empty space in between them.
(2) The particles of matter constantly remain in motion i.e., they have kinetic energy in them.
(3) The kinetic energy of particles of matter increases with increase in temperature.
(4) The particles of matter automatically get mixed finally.
(5) The particles of matter attract one another.

Questions from Sub-section 1.3

Question 1.

The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density. (Density = mass/volume) Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.
Answer:
On writing the given substances in order of increasing density, the following sequence will be obtained:
exhaust from chimneys, air, cotton, chalk, water, honey and iron.

Question 2.
(a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter.
(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, Ailing a gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.
Answer:
(a) Given differences are found in case of different properties of different states of matter:

Property	Solids	Liquids	Gases
Size	They have definite size.	They do not have definite size.	They do not have definite size.
Volume	They have definite volume.	They too have definite volume.	They do not have definite volume.
Hardness	They are hard.	They are not hard.	They do not have this property.
Piling up	They can be piled up.	They flow.	They also flow.
Capacity of compression	They cannot be compressed.	They cannot be compressed.	They can be compressed.
Position of Particles	Particles are very close with each other.	Particles are away from each other.	They have too much vacant space in between particles.

(b) (i) Rigidity: The force of cohesion working in between the particles of a substance determines the rigidity of the substance. Due to the maximum force of cohesion in solids, rigidity is there. Liquids have yet lesser and the gasses have the least rigidity.

(ii) Compressibility: Reducing of interstitial gaps in the particles of a substance with the application of external force is called compressibility. Gases have the property of compressibility.

(iii) Fluidity: Materials that have the property to flow are known as liquid materials. In liquids, the property of fluidity is there.

(iv) Filling of gas Container: Due to weak intermolecular force between the gas particles in a container, the gas occupies the whole of the provided space, which means gases do not have a definite volume. The gases are filled in the container at high pressure.

(v) Shape: Since the particles of solids are attached to more intermolecular force, hence they provide a definite shape to the solids. Whereas, in liquids the intermolecular force is comparatively low, due to this reason liquids do not have a definite shape. The same is the case with gases too.

(vi) Kinetic Energy: The energy produced due to the speed of particles is called kinetic energy. On increasing the temperature the kinetic energy of particles also increases. There is not much kinetic energy in solids, some kinetic energy in liquids whereas gases have high kinetic energy. Density of soilds is high, low in liquids whereas it is nil in gases.

(vii) Density: The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density, i.e.,

Question 3.
Give reasons:
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
(c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we need a karate expert
Answer:
(a) As the volume of gas is not definite, the gas completely fills up die vessel in which it is kept.

(b) In the gaseous state the speed of particles is irregular and it is fairly random. Due to this irregular speed, the particles of gas collide with themselves and with the walls of the container. Due to the cohesive force exerted by die particles of gas per unit area; on the walls of the container, the pressure of the gas is maintained.

(c) As the wooden table constitutes a definite shape, also it has a definite volume and the property of incompressibility; therefore, it is called to be solid.

(d) Due to maximising space in the particles of air, we can move our hand quite easily in the air, whereas, due to less intermolecular space between the particles in the piece of wood, we have to be quite expert at Karate Technique.

Question 4.
Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.
Answer:
In comparison to solids, liquids have low density, but water has maximum density at 4°C. When it is cooled down below 4°C, the ice starts thawing at 0°C which has lower density than the density of water. Therefore ice cube floats on the surface of water.

Questions from Sub-section 1.4

Question 1.
Convert the following temperatures to Celsius scale:
(a) 300 K
(b) 573 K.
Answer:
(a) 300 K = (300 – 273)°C = 27°C
(b) 573 K = (573 -273)°C = 300°C

Question 2.
What is the physical state of water at:
(a) 250°C
(b) 100°C?
Answer:
(a) At 250°C water remains boiling.
(b) At 100°C water will start boiling, because this is the boiling point of water.

Question 3.
For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state?
Answer:
During the change of state in any material the temperature remains constant because during the change of state the entire heat energy being yielded to the material brings under control intercohesive force of the particles, which is utilised to change the state of a material.

Question 4.
Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
Answer:
The atmospheric gases present in the air zone are confined to a utensil and by increasing its pressure and reducing the temperature, they can be converted further into liquid.

Questions from Sub-section 1.5

Question 1.
Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?
Answer:
On a hot and dry day, due to lack of humidity, the air is generally dry, when this dry air is sucked inwards by the exhaust fan of the desert cooler, then the water trickling on the mats of the desert cooler turns into vapours and thereby sucks the heat present in the dry air, as a result, the air around cools down. This cool air cools down the room from the inside.

Question 2.
How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?
Answer:
The earthen pot consists of very small pores in its walls through which the water leaks out from inside the pot with capillarity process. These small drops of water get evaporated and it receives heat energy from water itself for evaporation. Consequently, the water kept in  the earthen pot remains cold.

Question 3.
Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?
Answer:
By pouring down acetone/petrol or perfume on the palm, its particles eliminate heat energy from the palm and further, evaporate it into air due to which the palm feels cold.

Question 4.
Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?
Answer:
The surface area of the saucer is far more than that of a cup due to which, the evaporation in case of saucer is more rapid from its surface and with that the hot milk or tea comparatively cools down quicker and due to their cooling down, they can be drunk quickly.

Question 5.
What type of clothes should we wear in summer?
Answer:
In summer, we should wear cotton clothes, it is because of the reason that in summer, due to physical activity we perspire more, with a result we feel cool. As we know during evaporation the particles of the liquid’s surface receive energy from our body and further convert it into vapours.

The exposed dormant heat energy of evaporation combines with the equal amount of heat energy absorbed from our body, which lets our body feel cool. By wearing cotton garments the absorption of water gets more, consequently the sweat after absorption into it gets easily evaporated into the atmosphere.

HBSE 9th Class Science Matter in Our Surroundings Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Convert the following temperatures to the Celsius scale:
(a) 293 K
(b) 4701L
Answer:
(a) 293K = (293 – 273)°C = 20°C
(b) 470K = (470-273)°C = 197°C

Question 2.
Convert the following temperatures to the Kelvin scale:
(a) 25°C
(b) 373°C.
Answer:
(a) 25°C = (25 ÷ 273)K = 298 K
(b) 373°C = (373 + 273)K = 646 K

Question 3.
Give the reason for the following observations.
(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.
Answer:
(a)Naphthalene ball is after some time without losing its solid state disappear, it is because of the reason that naphthalene is a volatile substance which directly converts from a solid state into a gaseous state.

(b) We can feel the fragrance of perfume sitting several metres away because perfume has the property to diffuse into air.

Question 4.
Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles: water, sugar, and oxygen.
Answer:
In increasing order the applicable intermolecular force among the molecules will be as follows:
Oxygen < Water < Sugar.

Question 5.
What is the physical state of water:
(a) 25°C,
(b) 0°C, (c) 100°C?
Answer:
(a) At 25°C water will be in a liquid state.
(b) At 0°C water will be in a solid state (ice).
(c) At 100°C water will be in a boiling state (steam).

Question 6.
Give two reasons to justify:
(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) an iron almirah is solid at room temperature.
Answer:

(a) Water at room temperature is in a liquid state, because

• At this temperature the applied force of cohesion between its molecules used to be normal.
• Its molecules have normal elliptical speed.

(b) The iron almirah at room temperature is in solid state, because

• The applicable force of cohesion in between the molecules of iron is fairly excessive.
• The gap distance between the molecules of iron is almost negligible due to that reason they can move around at a fixed distance.

Question 7.
Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature ?
Answer:
At 273 K temperature, in comparison to water, ice releases more coolness, because in ice inexposed melting heat energy is more.

Question 8.
What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?
Answer:
Rather, steam will give severe burning sensation it is because of the reasons that steam does have extra heat energy in it which is called in exposed heat energy of evaporation.

Question 9.
Name A, B, C, D, E and F in the following diagram showing changes in its state:

Answer:
(A) Melting
(B) Vaporisation
(C) Condensation
(D) Freezing
(E) Sublimation
(F) Sublima

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति Ex 1.1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति Exercise 1.1

प्रश्न 1.
क्या शून्य एक परिमेय संख्या है? क्या इसे आप \(\frac { p }{ q }\) के रूप में लिख सकते हैं, जहाँ p और q पूर्णांक हैं और q ≠ 0 है?
हल :
हाँ, शून्य (0) एक परिमेय संख्या है। शून्य को \(\frac { p }{ q }\) के रूप में लिखा जा सकता है जहाँ हर q को ऋणात्मक भी लिया जा सकता है; जैसे
\(0=\frac{0}{1}=\frac{0}{2}=\frac{0}{3}\)

प्रश्न 2.
3 और 4 के बीच में छः परिमेय संख्याएँ ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
हम जानते हैं कि
\(3=3 \times \frac{7}{7}=\frac{21}{7}\) [∵ 6+1=7]
तथा \(4=4 \times \frac{7}{7}=\frac{28}{7}\)
अतः 3 और 4 के बीच छः परिमेय संख्याएँ = \(\frac{22}{7}, \frac{23}{7}, \frac{24}{7}, \frac{25}{7}, \frac{26}{7}, \frac{27}{7}\)

प्रश्न 3.
\(\frac{3}{5}\) और \(\frac{4}{5}\) के बीच पाँच परिमेय संख्याएँ ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल :
हम जानते हैं कि
\(\frac{3}{5}=\frac{3 \times 6}{5 \times 6}=\frac{18}{30}\)
तथा
\(\frac{4}{5}=\frac{4 \times 6}{5 \times 6}=\frac{24}{30}\)

अतः \(\frac{3}{5}\) व \(\frac{4}{5}\) के बीच पाँच परिमेय संख्याएँ = \(\frac{19}{30}, \frac{20}{30}, \frac{21}{30}, \frac{22}{30}, \frac{23}{30}\)

प्रश्न 4.
नीचे दिए गए कथन सत्य हैं या असत्य? कारण के साथ अपने उत्तर दीजिए।
(i) प्रत्येक प्राकृत संख्या एक पूर्ण संख्या होती है।
(ii) प्रत्येक पूर्णांक एक पूर्ण संख्या होती है।
(iii) प्रत्येक परिमेय संख्या एक पूर्ण संख्या होती है।
हल :
(i) सत्य है, क्योंकि पूर्ण संख्याओं के संग्रह में सभी प्राकृत संख्याएँ होती हैं। अतः प्रत्येक प्राकृत संख्या एक पूर्ण संख्या होती है।
(ii) असत्य है; जैसे – 2,-3, -4 आदि पूर्ण संख्याएँ नहीं हैं।
(iii) असत्य है; जैसे \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) परिमेय संख्या है परंतु पूर्ण संख्या नहीं है।

Haryana Board HBSE 9th Class Science Notes

HBSE 9th Class Science Notes in English Medium

• Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings Notes
• Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Notes
• Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules Notes
• Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom Notes
• Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life Notes
• Chapter 6 Tissues Notes
• Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms Notes
• Chapter 8 Motion Notes
• Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion Notes
• Chapter 10 Gravitation Notes
• Chapter 11 Work and Energy Notes
• Chapter 12 Sound Notes
• Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall Ill Notes
• Chapter 14 Natural Resources Notes
• Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources Notes

HBSE 9th Class Science Notes in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 हमारे आस-पास के पदार्थ Notes
• Chapter 2 क्या हमारे आस-पास के पदार्थ शुद्ध हैं Notes
• Chapter 3 परमाणु एवं अणु Notes
• Chapter 4 परमाणु की संरचना Notes
• Chapter 5 जीवन की मौलिक इकाई Notes
• Chapter 6 ऊतक Notes
• Chapter 7 जीवों में विविधता Notes
• Chapter 8 गति Notes
• Chapter 9 बल तथा गति के नियम Notes
• Chapter 10 गुरुत्वाकर्षण Notes
• Chapter 11 कार्य तथा ऊर्जा Notes
• Chapter 12 ध्वनि Notes
• Chapter 13 हम बीमार क्यों होते हैं Notes
• Chapter 14 प्राकृतिक सम्पदा Notes
• Chapter 15 खाद्य संसाधनों में सुधार Notes

Haryana Board HBSE 9th Class Science Important Questions and Answers

HBSE 9th Class Science Important Questions in English Medium

• Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings Important Questions
• Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Important Questions
• Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules Important Questions
• Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom Important Questions
• Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life Important Questions
• Chapter 6 Tissues Important Questions
• Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms Important Questions
• Chapter 8 Motion Important Questions
• Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion Important Questions
• Chapter 10 Gravitation Important Questions
• Chapter 11 Work and Energy Important Questions
• Chapter 12 Sound Important Questions
• Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall Ill Important Questions
• Chapter 14 Natural Resources Important Questions
• Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources Important Questions

HBSE 9th Class Science Important Questions in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 हमारे आस-पास के पदार्थ Important Questions
• Chapter 2 क्या हमारे आस-पास के पदार्थ शुद्ध हैं Important Questions
• Chapter 3 परमाणु एवं अणु Important Questions
• Chapter 4 परमाणु की संरचना Important Questions
• Chapter 5 जीवन की मौलिक इकाई Important Questions
• Chapter 6 ऊतक Important Questions
• Chapter 7 जीवों में विविधता Important Questions
• Chapter 8 गति Important Questions
• Chapter 9 बल तथा गति के नियम Important Questions
• Chapter 10 गुरुत्वाकर्षण Important Questions
• Chapter 11 कार्य तथा ऊर्जा Important Questions
• Chapter 12 ध्वनि Important Questions
• Chapter 13 हम बीमार क्यों होते हैं Important Questions
• Chapter 14 प्राकृतिक सम्पदा Important Questions
• Chapter 15 खाद्य संसाधनों में सुधार Important Questions

Haryana Board HBSE 9th Class Science Solutions

HBSE 9th Class Science Solutions in English Medium

• Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings
• Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure
• Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules
• Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom
• Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life
• Chapter 6 Tissues
• Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms
• Chapter 8 Motion
• Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion
• Chapter 10 Gravitation
• Chapter 11 Work and Energy
• Chapter 12 Sound
• Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall Ill
• Chapter 14 Natural Resources
• Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources

HBSE 9th Class Science Solutions in Hindi Medium

• Chapter 1 हमारे आस-पास के पदार्थ
• Chapter 2 क्या हमारे आस-पास के पदार्थ शुद्ध हैं
• Chapter 3 परमाणु एवं अणु
• Chapter 4 परमाणु की संरचना
• Chapter 5 जीवन की मौलिक इकाई
• Chapter 6 ऊतक
• Chapter 7 जीवों में विविधता
• Chapter 8 गति
• Chapter 9 बल तथा गति के नियम
• Chapter 10 गुरुत्वाकर्षण
• Chapter 11 कार्य तथा ऊर्जा
• Chapter 12 ध्वनि
• Chapter 13 हम बीमार क्यों होते हैं
• Chapter 14 प्राकृतिक सम्पदा
• Chapter 15 खाद्य संसाधनों में सुधार

Haryana Board HBSE 9th Class Maths Solutions

HBSE 9th Class Maths Solutions in English Medium

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 1 Number Systems

• Chapter 1 Number Systems Ex 1.1
• Chapter 1 Number Systems Ex 1.2
• Chapter 1 Number Systems Ex 1.3
• Chapter 1 Number Systems Ex 1.4
• Chapter 1 Number Systems Ex 1.5
• Chapter 1 Number Systems Ex 1.6

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials

• Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.1
• Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.2
• Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.3
• Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.4
• Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.5

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry

• Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry Ex 3.1
• Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry Ex 3.2
• Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry Ex 3.3

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables

• Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Ex 4.1
• Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Ex 4.2
• Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Ex 4.3
• Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Ex 4.4

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry

• Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry Ex 5.1
• Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry Ex 5.2

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 6 Lines and Angles

• Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Ex 6.1
• Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Ex 6.2
• Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Ex 6.3

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 7 Triangles

• Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.1
• Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2
• Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.3
• Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.4
• Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.5

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 8 Quadrilaterals

• Chapter 8 Quadrilaterals Ex 8.1
• Chapter 8 Quadrilaterals Ex 8.2

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 9 Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles

• Chapter 9 Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles Ex 9.1
• Chapter 9 Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles Ex 9.2
• Chapter 9 Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles Ex 9.3
• Chapter 9 Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles Ex 9.4

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 10 Circles

• Chapter 10 Circles Ex 10.1
• Chapter 10 Circles Ex 10.2
• Chapter 10 Circles Ex 10.3
• Chapter 10 Circles Ex 10.4
• Chapter 10 Circles Ex 10.5
• Chapter 10 Circles Ex 10.6

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 11 Constructions

• Chapter 11 Constructions Ex 11.1
• Chapter 11 Constructions Ex 11.2

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 12 Heron’s Formula

• Chapter 12 Heron’s Formula Ex 12.1
• Chapter 12 Heron’s Formula Ex 12.2

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes

• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.1
• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.2
• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.3
• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.4
• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.5
• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.6
• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.7
• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.8
• Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Ex 13.9

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 14 Statistics

• Chapter 14 Statistics Ex 14.1
• Chapter 14 Statistics Ex 14.2
• Chapter 14 Statistics Ex 14.3
• Chapter 14 Statistics Ex 14.4

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 15 Probability

• Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1

HBSE 9th Class Maths Solutions in Hindi Medium

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति

• Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति Ex 1.1
• Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति Ex 1.2
• Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति Ex 1.3
• Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति Ex 1.4
• Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति Ex 1.5
• Chapter 1 संख्या पद्धति Ex 1.6

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 2 बहुपद

• Chapter 2 बहुपद Ex 2.1
• Chapter 2 बहुपद Ex 2.2
• Chapter 2 बहुपद Ex 2.3
• Chapter 2 बहुपद Ex 2.4
• Chapter 2 बहुपद Ex 2.5

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 3 निर्देशांक ज्यामिति

• Chapter 3 निर्देशांक ज्यामिति Ex 3.1
• Chapter 3 निर्देशांक ज्यामिति Ex 3.2
• Chapter 3 निर्देशांक ज्यामिति Ex 3.3

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 4 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण

• Chapter 4 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण Ex 4.1
• Chapter 4 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण Ex 4.2
• Chapter 4 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण Ex 4.3
• Chapter 4 दो चरों वाले रैखिक समीकरण Ex 4.4

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 5 युक्लिड के ज्यामिति का परिचय

• Chapter 5 युक्लिड के ज्यामिति का परिचय Ex 5.1
• Chapter 5 युक्लिड के ज्यामिति का परिचय Ex 5.2

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 6 रेखाएँ और कोण

• Chapter 6 रेखाएँ और कोण Ex 6.1
• Chapter 6 रेखाएँ और कोण Ex 6.2
• Chapter 6 रेखाएँ और कोण Ex 6.3

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 7 त्रिभुज

• Chapter 7 त्रिभुज Ex 7.1
• Chapter 7 त्रिभुज Ex 7.2
• Chapter 7 त्रिभुज Ex 7.3
• Chapter 7 त्रिभुज Ex 7.4
• Chapter 7 त्रिभुज Ex 7.5

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 8 चतुर्भुज

• Chapter 8 चतुर्भुज Ex 8.1
• Chapter 8 चतुर्भुज Ex 8.2

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 9 समान्तर चतुर्भुज और त्रिभुजों के क्षेत्रफल

• Chapter 9 समान्तर चतुर्भुज और त्रिभुजों के क्षेत्रफल Ex 9.1
• Chapter 9 समान्तर चतुर्भुज और त्रिभुजों के क्षेत्रफल Ex 9.2
• Chapter 9 समान्तर चतुर्भुज और त्रिभुजों के क्षेत्रफल Ex 9.3
• Chapter 9 समान्तर चतुर्भुज और त्रिभुजों के क्षेत्रफल Ex 9.4

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 10 वृत्त

• Chapter 10 वृत्त Ex 10.1
• Chapter 10 वृत्त Ex 10.2
• Chapter 10 वृत्त Ex 10.3
• Chapter 10 वृत्त Ex 10.4
• Chapter 10 वृत्त Ex 10.5
• Chapter 10 वृत्त Ex 10.6

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 11 रचनाएँ

• Chapter 11 रचनाएँ Ex 11.1
• Chapter 11 रचनाएँ Ex 11.2

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 12 हीरोन का सूत्र

• Chapter 12 हीरोन का सूत्र Ex 12.1
• Chapter 12 हीरोन का सूत्र Ex 12.2

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन

• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.1
• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.2
• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.3
• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.4
• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.5
• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.6
• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.7
• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.8
• Chapter 13 पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल एवं आयतन Ex 13.9

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 14 सांख्यिकी

• Chapter 14 सांख्यिकी Ex 14.1
• Chapter 14 सांख्यिकी Ex 14.2
• Chapter 14 सांख्यिकी Ex 14.3
• Chapter 14 सांख्यिकी Ex 14.4

HBSE 9th Class Maths Chapter 15 प्रायिकता

• Chapter 15 प्रायिकता Ex 15.1