Class 10

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Notes Economics Chapter 4 वैश्वीकरण और भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था Notes.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Notes Economics Chapter 4 वैश्वीकरण और भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था

वैश्वीकरण और भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था Notes HBSE 10th Class

→ वैश्वीकारण विभिन्न देशों के बीच तीव्र एकीकरण की प्रक्रिया है। अधिकाधिक विदेशी निवेश और विदेश व्यापार के कारण यह संभव हो रहो है।

→ वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया में बहुराष्ट्रीय कंपनियाँ मुख्य भूमिका निभा रही हैं।

→ आधुनिक में उत्पादन कार्य अत्यन्त जटिल तरीके से संपन्न हो रहो हैं इसका कारण यह है कि अधिकांश बहुराष्ट्रीय कंपनियाँ विश्व के उन स्थानों की ओर जा रही हैं जो उनके उत्पादन के लिए सस्ता हो, जहाँ बाजार नजदीक हो और सस्ती दर पर श्रमिक उपलब्ध हों।

→ कभी-कभी ये बहुराष्ट्रीय कंपनियाँ स्थानीय कंपनियों के साथ गठजोड़ कर उत्पादन करती हैं, जिससे दोनों को फायदा होता है।

→ विदेश व्यापार के कारण बाजारों के एकीकरण में काफी सहायता मिली है। विदेश व्यापार घरेलू बाजारों को दूसरे बाहर के बाजारों तक पहुँचने के लिए उत्पादकों को एक अवसर प्रदान करता है।

वैश्वीकरण और भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था Class 10 Notes HBSE

→ अप्रतिबंधित व्यापार से वस्तुओं का एक बाजर से दूसरे बाजार में आवागमन आसान हो जाता है। बाजार में वस्तुओं का विकल्प बढ़ जाता है। और मूल्य में भी समानता रहती है।

→ प्रौद्योगिकी के क्षेत्र में तीव्र उन्नति ने वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया को अत्यन्त उत्प्रेरित किया है। परिवहन प्रौद्योगिकी में उन्नति के कारण विभिन्न देशों के बीच दूरियाँ कम हो गई हैं, सूचना और संचार प्रौद्योगिकी विशेषकर दूरसंचार, कप्यूटर और इटंरनेट के क्षेत्र में द्रुतगामी परिवर्तन के कारण विभिन्न देशों के बीच सेवाओं के उत्पादन के प्रसार में क्रांति सी आ गई है।

→ सन् 1991 ई. में भारत में नई आर्थिक नीति अपनाई गई जिसके चलते उदारीकरण, निजीकरण और वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया प्रारंभ हुई। इससे भारत को विश्व का व्यापक बाजार प्राप्त हुआ और अपने उत्पादों को अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय स्तर का बनाने का मौका मिला।

→ भारत में उपलब्ध विशाल श्रम को विश्व के लिए उपलब्ध कराना अधिक सहज हो गया। परंतु इन सभी लाभों के साथ कुछ हानियाँ भी हुई, जैसे भारतीय लघु एवं कुटीर उद्योग को विशाल बहुराष्ट्रीय कपंनियों से जी-तोड़ मुकाबला करना पड़ रहा है।

→ विश्व व्यापार संगठन का उद्देश्य अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार को उदार बनाना है किंतु व्यवहार में देखा गया है कि डब्ल्यू.टी.ओ. ने व्यापार और निवेश के उदारीकरण के लिए विकासशील देशों पर ही दबाव डाला है, जबकि विकसित देशों ने अनुचित ढंग से व्यापार अवरोधकों को बरकरार रखा है।

→ वैश्वीकरण से धनी उपभोक्ता, कुशल, शिक्षित एवं धनी उत्पादक काफी लाभान्वित हुए हैं। आज उपभोक्ताओं के समक्ष वस्तुओं तथा सेवाओं का ज्यादा विकल्प हैं अब उन्हें उत्पादों की उत्कृष्टता, गुणवत्ता तथा कम कीमत का लाभ भी मिल रहा है।

→ पणिामतः लोगों का जीवन स्तर भी ऊँचा हुआ है। वैश्वीकरण से सेवा प्रदाता कंपनियों, सूचना और संचार प्रौद्योगिकी वाली कंपनियों के लिए नये अवसरों का सृजन हुआ है।

→ परंतु बढ़ती प्रतिस्पर्धा के कारण अनेक छोटे उत्पादक और श्रमिक प्रभावित भी हुए हैं बढ़ती प्रतिस्पर्धाके कारण अधिकांश नियोक्ता इन दिनों श्रमिकों को रोजगार देने में लचीलापन पसंद करते हैं। इस कारण श्रमिकों को शोषण होता है।

Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Notes HBSE

→ उन्हें रोजगार सुरक्षा की गारंटी नहीं मिलती, उन्हें वेतन भी कम मिलता है श्रमिकों से काफी लंबे कार्य-घंटों तक काम लिया जाता है।

→ अतः वैश्वीकरण को अधिकाधिक न्याय संगत बनाने की जरूरत है जिससे वैश्वीकरण के लाभों में सबकी बेहतर हिस्से री हो।

→ भारत में उदारीकरण की प्रक्रिया आरंभ : सन् 1991 से।

→ आई. एम. एफ. : अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रय कोष।

→ 1950-65 के मध्य औद्योगिक विकास दर : 8%

→ प्रथम पंचवर्षीय योजना का कार्यकाल : 1951-56

→ वैश्वीकरण : अपने देश की तथा विश्व की अर्थव्यवस्था के मध्य सामंजस्य स्थापित करना

→ 1991 में प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश : 174 करोड़ रुपये।

→ वर्ष 2000 में प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश : 9338 करोड़ रुपये

→ सन् 1991 में भारत का विदेशी मुद्रा कोष था : 4622 करोड़ रुपये का।

→ सन् 2000 में भारत का विदेशी मुद्रा कोष हुआ : 1, 52, 924 करोड़ रुपये का।

→ सतत पोषणीय विकास : ऐसा विकास जो परिवेश को हानि न पहुंचाये।

→ सन् 1990-91 में मूल्य वृद्धि दर : 12%

→ 90 के दशक के अंत में मूल्य वृद्धि दर : 5%

→ सन् 2000 में भारत का मुद्रा कोष : 1, 52, 924 करोड़ रुपये।

→ सन् 1991 में भारत का मुद्रा कोष : 4622 करोड़ रुपये मात्र था।

→ विश्व व्यापार संगठन की स्थापना : 1996

→ विश्व व्यापार संगठन का मुख्यालय : जेनेवा।

→ वर्ष 2000 में भारत में प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश : 9338 करोड़ रुपये।

→ नवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना में सरकार ने सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के उद्यमों में लगभग 34, 200 करोड़ रुपये खर्च किए।

→ भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था को विश्व अर्थव्यवस्था से जोड़ने का मुख्य उद्देश्य है। विभिन्न देशों के साथ पूंजी, तकनीकी ज्ञान और अनभव का निर्बाध रूप से आदान-प्रदान करना।

→ 1965-1980 के मध्य भारत में औद्योगिक उतपादनों के बढ़ने की दर 4% थी।

→ वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया में तीन कारकों पर बल दिया हो गया है :

• प्रौद्योगिकी में तीव्र उन्नति
• व्यापार और निवेश नीतियों का उदारीकरण
• डब्ल्यू. टी. ओ. जैसे अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय सगठना का दबावा

→ आधुनिक युग में उपभोक्ताओं के समक्ष वस्तुओं और सेवाओं का बहुत अधिक विकल्प हैं।

→ 20 वीं सदी के मध्य तक उत्पादन मुख्यतः देशों की सीमाओं के अंदर ही सीमित थी।

→ बहुराष्ट्रीय कंपनियों के निवेश का सामान्य तरीका हैं, स्थानीय कपंनियों को खरीदना, उसके बाद उत्पादन का प्रसार करना।

→ व्यापारिक हितों के कारण ही व्यापारिक कंपनियाँ जैसे, ईस्ट इंडिया केपनी भारत की ओर आकर्षित हुई।

→ अप्रतिबंधित व्यापार से वस्तुओं का एक बाजार से दूसरे बाजार में आवागमन होता है।

→ प्रौद्योगिकी में तीव्र उन्नति वह कारक है जिसन वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया को उत्प्रेरित किया।

→ अधिकांश बहुराष्ट्रीय कंपनियों के क्रियाकलाप में वस्तुओं व सेवाओं का बड़े पैमाने पर व्यापार शमिल होता है।

→ आई. टी. ने विभिन्न देशों के बीच सेवाओं के उत्पादन के प्रसार में मुख्य भूमिका निभाई है।

→ भारत में उदारीकरण की प्रक्रिया की प्रक्रिया 1991 ई. से शुरू हुई।

→ विश्व व्यापार संगठन का ध्येय अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार को उदार बनाना है।

→ वर्तमान समय में 149 देश डब्ल्यू. टी. ओ. के सदस्य

→ अमेरिका के सकल घरेलू उत्पाद में कृषि का हिस्सा मात्र 1% और कुल रोजगार में 0.5% हैं।

→ विशेष आर्थिक क्षेत्र (SEZ) में उत्पादन इकाइयाँ स्थापित करने वाली कंपनियों को आरंभिक 5 वर्षों तक कोई कर नहीं देना है।

→ भारत में 2 करोड़ लोग लघु उद्योगों में नियोजित हैं।

→ शिक्षित, कुशल और संपन्न लोगों ने वैश्वीकरण से मिले नये अवसरों का सर्वोत्तम उपयोग किया है।

→ वैश्वीकरण विभिन्न देशों के बीच तीव्र एकीकरण की प्रक्रिया है।

→ वैश्वीकरण-इसका तात्पर्य किसी देश द्वारा अपनी अर्थवव्यस्था तथा विश्व अर्थव्यवस्था में सामंजस्य स्थापित करना है।

→ उदारीकरण-इसका तात्पर्य निजी क्षेत्र को नियमों, शर्तों और प्रतिबन्धों से छूट देने से हैं।

→ आयात कोटा-किसी देश द्वारा आयात किये जाने वाली वस्तुओं की अधिकतम सीमा।

→ निर्यात कोटा- सरकार द्वारा निर्यात करने की निश्चित की गई अधिकतम सीमा।

→ आयात शुल्क-आयतित सामग्री पर लगाया गया शुल्क।

प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश-किसी देश में किसी और देश द्वारा माल और सेवाओं के उत्पादन में किया जाने वाला निवेश।

→ डब्लू. टी. ओ.-विश्व व्यापार संगठन (World Trade Organisation) (वर्ल्ड ट्रेड ऑरगेनाइजेशन)।

→ निजी क्षेत्र-अर्थव्यवस्था का वह क्षेत्र जिसमें आर्थिक संस्थाओं पर व्यक्ति या समूहों का नियंत्रण हों।

→ सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र-यह अर्थव्यवस्था का वह क्षेत्र है जिसमें आर्थिक संस्थाओं पर राज्य का पूर्ण नियंत्रण होता है।

→ बहुराष्ट्रीय कंपनी-वह है जो एक से अधिक देशों में उत्पादन पर नियंत्रण अथवा स्वामित्व रखती है।

→ निवेश-परिसंपत्तियों जैसे-भूमि, भवन, मशीन व अन्य उपकरणों की खरीद में व्यय की गई मुद्रा को निवेश कहते हैं।

→ कोटा-सरकार द्वारा आयात होने वाली वस्तुओं की संख्या को सीमित करने की प्रक्रिया को कोटा कहते हैं।

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 2 इंडो-चाइना में राष्ट्रवादी आंदोलन Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 2 इंडो-चाइना में राष्ट्रवादी आंदोलन

इंडो-चाइना में राष्ट्रवादी आंदोलन Important Questions History HBSE 10th Class  प्रश्न 1.
इण्डो-चाइना किन तीन देशों से मिलकर बना है?
उत्तर-
इण्डो-चाइना के तीन देश हैं-वियतनाम, लाओस तथा कम्बोडिया।

HBSE 10th Class Important Questions History Chapter 2 इंडो-चाइना में राष्ट्रवादी आंदोलन प्रश्न 2.
सिल्क रूट क्या है?
उत्तर-
समद्री रास्ता जिससे सामान आता-जाता था तथा लोगों की आवाजाही थी उसे सिल्क रूट कहा जाता है।

Chapter 2 इंडो-चाइना में राष्ट्रवादी आंदोलन Important Questions HBSE 10th Class प्रश्न 3.
पहली बार वियतनाम में फ्रांसीसी सेना ने कब कदम रखा?
उत्तर-
1858 में वियतनाम में फ्रांसीसी सेना ने कदम रखा।

प्रश्न 4.
गार्निए कोन था?
उत्तर-
मेकोंग नदी की खोज करने वाले फ्रांसीसी दल का सदस्य था। उसे फ्रांसीसी उपनिवेश स्थापित करने के लिए चुना गया था।

प्रश्न 5.
1887 में किसका गठन किया गया? उत्तर-फ्रेंच इण्डो-चाइना का गठन 1887 में हुआ। प्रश्न 6. संरचनागत परियोजना क्या है?
उत्तर-
वे परियोजनाएँ जिनमें अर्थव्यवस्था के ढाँचे का निर्माण किया जाता है, जैसे-रेल-नेटवर्क, बिजलीघर आदि। उसे संरचनागत परियोजना कहा गया।

प्रश्न 7.
1931 तक कौन-सा देश चावल का निर्यातक बन गया?
उत्तर-
वियतनाम।

प्रश्न 8.
संरचनागत परियोजनाओं को बनाने का मुख्य कारण क्या था?
उत्तर-
व्यापारिक वस्तुओं के आवागमन और फौजी टुकड़ियों के आने-जाने के लिए इन परियोजनाओं का निर्माण किया गया।

प्रश्न 9.
एकतरफा अनुबंध व्यवस्था क्या थी?
उत्तर-
बागान के मज़दूर बिना किसी अधिकार के काम करते थे, उसे एकतरफा अनुबंध कहा जाता था। इन अनुबंधों की शर्ते पूर्ण न होने पर मालिक मज़दूरों के विरुद्ध मुकदमा करते तथा उन्हें सजा देते थे।

प्रश्न 10.
वियतनामियों को पश्चिमी शिक्षा देने में क्या दुविधा थी?
उत्तर-
वियतनामियों को यदि पूर्ण पश्चिमी शिक्षा दी जाती तो फ्रांसीसियों के हाथ से काम-धंधे एवं नौकरियाँ हाथ से चली जाती।

प्रश्न 11.
टोंकिन फ्री स्कूल कब खोला गया?
उत्तर-
टोंकिन फ्री स्कूल 1907 में खोला गया।

प्रश्न 12.
साइगॉन नेटिव गर्ल्स स्कूल में आंदोलन कब आरम्भ किया गया?
उत्तर-
सन् 1926 में साइगॉन नेटिव गर्ल्स स्कूल में आंदोलन आरम्भ किया गया।

प्रश्न 13.
1930 में हो ची मिन्ह ने किसकी स्थापना की?
उत्तर-
1930 में वियतनामी कम्युनिस्ट पार्टी की स्थापना हो ची मिन्ह ने की।

प्रश्न 14.
1903 में हनोई के किस भाग में कौन-सी बीमारी फैली?
उत्तर-
1903 हनोई के नवनिर्मित आधुनिक भाग में ब्यूबॉनिक प्लेग की महामारी फैल गई।

प्रश्न 15.
कनफ्यूशियस कौन थे?
उत्तर-
कन्फ्यूशियस एक चीनी विचारक थे जिन्होंने एक दार्शनिक व्यवस्था का विकास किया। उन्होंने बड़े-बुजुर्गों का आदर करना तथा उनका कहना मानना सिखाया उन्होंने यह बताया कि राजा और प्रजा के मध्य संबंध कैसा होना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 16.
वियतनामियों का किस धर्म में विश्वास था?
उत्तर-
वियतनामी बौद्ध धर्म, कन्फ्यूशिपसवाद का अनुसरण करते थे।

प्रश्न 17.
फ्रांसीसी मिशनरी किस धर्म का प्रचार कर रहे थे?
उत्तर-
ईसाई धर्म।

प्रश्न 18.
समन्वयवाद किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर-
जब भिन्नताओं के स्थान पर अलग-अलग विचारों तथा मान्यताओं को एक-साथ लाने का प्रयास किया जाता है, उसे समन्वयवाद कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 19.
यातना शिविर क्या था?
उत्तर-
यातना शिविर वह जेल थी जहाँ कैदियों को कानून का अनुसरण किए बिना ही डाल दिया जाता था तथा उन पर निर्मम अत्याचार किया जाता था।

प्रश्न 20.
हुइन्ह फू सो कौन थे?
उत्तर-
हुइन्ह फू सो 1939 में आरम्भ हुए आंदोलन होआ हाओ के संस्थापक थे।

प्रश्न 21.
फान बोई चाऊ द्वारा लिखित एक पुस्तक का नाम बताएँ।
उत्तर-
द हिस्ट्री ऑफ द लॉस ऑफ वियतनाम।

प्रश्न 22.
गणतन्त्र किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर-
वह सरकार जो लोगों की सत्ता पर आधारित होती है, उसे गणतन्त्र कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 23.
20वीं सदी के पहले दशक के एक आंदोलन का नाम बताएँ।
उत्तर-
‘पूरब की ओर चलो’।

प्रश्न 24.
हो ची मिन्ह कौन थे?
उत्तर-
हो ची मिन्ह कम्युनिस्ट राष्ट्रवादी थे जिन्होंने फरवरी 1930 में वियतनामी कम्युनिस्ट पार्टी की स्थापना की।

प्रश्न 25.
दो साम कौन थे?
उत्तर-
दो साम वियतनामी तोपखाना रेजीमेन्ट में कर्नल थे। 1968 आरम्भ किए गए युद्ध जो उत्तरी तथा दक्षिणी वियतनाम के एकीकरण के लिए था, का वे भाग थे।

प्रश्न 26.
ट्रंग बहनों का राष्ट्रवादी आंदोलन में क्या योगदान था?
उत्तर-
ट्रंग बहनें विद्रोही महिलाओं के लिए एक आदर्श थीं। उन्होंने 30,000 सैनिकों की टुकड़ी को जमा किया तथा चीनियों का दो वर्श तक मुकाबला किया। जब उन्हें हारने का उर हुआ तो उन्होंने आत्मसमर्पण के स्थान पर आत्महत्या कर ली।

प्रश्न 27.
त्रियू अयू कौन थी?
उत्तर-
त्रियू अयू अत्यन्त महत्त्वपूर्ण तथा सम्मानित थीं। जंगल में जाकर उन्होंने विशाल सेना का गठन किया तथा चीनियों के विरुद्ध खड़ी हो गई। जब वे हार गईं तो उन्होंने खुदकुशी कर ली।

प्रश्न 28.
1960 में महिलाओं का चित्रण किस प्रकार किया गया?
उत्तर-
1960 में महिलाओं का चित्रण योद्धा औरतों के रूप में किया जाता था। औरतों को हवाई जहाजों को मार गिराते दिखाया जाता था। उनको बहादुर और युवा दर्शाया जाने लगा। उन्हें एक हाथ में हथौड़ा तथा दूसरे हाथ में राइफल लिए दिखाया गया।

प्रश्न 29.
वियतनाम को पुनः एकीकृत किस प्रकार किया गया?
उत्तर-
वियतनाम को एकीकृत जनवरी, 1947 में पेरिस में शांति समझौते के बाद किया गया। 30 अप्रैल, 1975 को एन. एल.एफ. ने राष्ट्रपति के महल पर कब्जा कर लिया। इस शांति समझौते के पश्चात् अमरिका के साथ टकराव में समाप्ति हुई तथा अंत में दोनों हिस्सों को मिलाकर एक राष्ट्र की स्थापना की गई।

प्रश्न 30.
इस अध्याय में आपने जो पढ़ा है, उसके हवाले से वियतनाम की संस्कृति और जीवन पर चीन के प्रभावों की चर्चा करें।
उत्तर-
वियतनाम की संस्कृति और जीवन पर चीन का प्रभाव-चीन के निकट होने और का एक बड़ा पड़ोसी देश होने के कारण वियतनाम पर चीन का गहरा प्रभाव होना स्वाभिक ही है जैसे श्रीलंका के भारत के निकट होने का उस पर गहरा प्रभाव देखने को मिलता है।

इन दोनों देशों में बौद्ध धर्म और कन्ल्युशियस धर्म प्रमुख रहे। जिन्होंने इन दोनों देशों के आपसी सम्बन्धों को और भी मजबूत बना दिया। चीन से बहुत से धार्मिक नेता और साधु-संत वियतनाम आते रहे और वियतनाम के लोगों को अपने धर्म के रंग में रंगते रहे। इस प्रकार धर्म के क्षेत्र में वियतनाम चीन का बड़ा द्धणी है।

साम्राज्वादी शक्तियों ने इन दोनों पर कड़ा नियन्त्रण रखने के लिए जब रेल, सड़क आदि के मामयम से इन दोनों देशों __ को एक प्रशासनिक नियन्त्रण तले लाने कस प्रयत्न किया तो ये दोनों देश और निकट आते चले गये। बाद में विदेशी साम्राज्य का मुकाबला करने के कारण दोनों को जब एक जैसी परिस्थियों में से होकर गुजरना पड़ा तो उनकी घनिष्ठता और बढ़ती चली गई। इस प्रकान चीन ने धीरे-धीरे वियतनाम की संस्कृति को अपने रंग में रंग लिया।

प्रश्न 31.
वियतनाम में उपनिवेशवात-विरोधी भावनाओं के विकास में धार्मिक संगठनों की भूमिका क्या थी?
उत्तर-
धर्म का लोगों के सामाजिक और सास्कृतिक जीवन पर बड़ा गहरा प्रभाव पड़ता है। वियतनाम पर अपना अधिकार बनाए रखने के उपेश्य से फ्रांसीसियों ने वहाँ के ध म में अन्धाधुन्ध दखल देना कर दिया जिसके कारण फ्रांस के विरुद्ध वहाँ अनेक साम्राज्य-विरोधी आन्दोलन छिड़ गए।

वियतनामियों के धर्म में बौद्ध धर्म, कन्फुशियनवाद और स्थानीय परम्पराओं का अजीब-सा मेल था। परन्तु जब फ्रांसिसियों ने वहाँ के लोगों पर ईसाई धर्म इंडो-चाइना में राष्ट्रवादी आंदोलन जबर्दस्ती ठोसन का प्रयत्न किया तो वहाँ उनके विरुद्ध एक तीव्र क्रिया उत्पन्न हो गई। परिणामस्वरुप उनके विरुण 1868 ई. में एक भंयकर विद्रोह उठ खड़ा हुआ जो ‘विद्धानों के विद्रोह’ (Scholars Revolt) के नाम से जाना जाता है। इस विद्रोह का वेग सबसे अधिक नगु अन (NguAn), हा तिएन (Ha Tien) प्रान्तों में था जहाँ लोगों ने लगभग एक हजार कैथोलिक पादरियों को मार डाला। चाहे इस विद्रोह को सख्ती से दबा दिया गया परन्तु अन्य स्थानों पर और नए विद्रोह उठ खड़े हुए।

ऐसा एक अन्य आन्दोलन 1939 ई. में हरे-भरे मेकोंग डेल्टा में शुरु हुआ। यह आन्दोलन हुआ हाव (Hoa Hao) अके नाम से जाना जाता है जिसमें हुइन्ह फू सो (Huynh Phu so) की महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका रही। चाहे फ्रांसिसी सरकार ने इस व्यक्ति को पागल घोषित करके जेल में डाल दिया और उसके अनुयायियों पर यातना शिविरों (Concentration Camps) में अनेक अत्याचार किये परन्तु वे वियतनाम के वेग को रोग न सके। .

प्रश्न 32.
वियतनाम युद्ध में अमेरिकी हिस्सेदारी के कारणों की व्याख्या करें। अमेरिका के इस तथ्य से अमेरिका में जवीन पर क्या असर पड़े?
उत्तर-
वियतनाम युद्ध में अमेरिकी हिस्सेदारी के कारण (Cause of the Involvement in the war of Vietnam).

• अमेरिका को डर था कि यदि वियतनाम को खाली छोड़ दिया तो वहाँ साम्यवाद छा जायेगा जो अमेरिका को किसी हालत में मंजूर नहीं था।
• अमेरिका का वियतनाम में दखल देने का दूसरा बड़ा कारण यह था कि वह भी सहन नहीं कर सकता था कि वियतनाम एक महान् यूरोपिय देश फ्रांस को मात दे दे इसलिये वियतनाम को हराकर वह यह दिखाना चाहता था कि पूंजिपति देश एक हैं।
• जेनेवा कांफ्रेंस ने वियतनाम को दो भागों-उनरी वियतनाम और दक्षिणी वियतनाम और में बाँटा था। जब जेनेवा कांफ्रेंस के निर्णय के विरुद्ध वियतनाम के दोनों भागों ने आपस में मिलने का प्रयत्न किया तो अमेरिका इस बात को सहन न कर सका।

फिर क्या था उसने 1965 ई. में एक विशाल सेना के साथ जो संघर्ष शुरु हुआ वह कोई अगले सात-आठ वर्ष (1965-1972) तक चलता रहा।
वियतनाम के युद्ध का अमेरिका के जन-जीवन पर प्रभाव-वितनाम के इस युद्ध का वियतनाम पर ही नहीं वरन् अमेरिका के जन-जीवन पर भी बड़ा गहरा प्रभाव पड़ा।

• चाहे बम्ब बरसाने से उत्तरी वियतनाम को लगभग बर्बाद कर दिया परन्तु उसे स्वयं भी बड़ी हानि उठानी पड़ी। इस युद्ध में उसके जान-माल का भी बहुत नुकसान हुआ।
• इस युद्ध में उसके 47,244 सैनिक मारे गये और 303,704 के लगभग सैनिक घायल हुए जिससे अमेरिका में मातम छा गया और इस युद्ध में अमेरिका द्वारा मुल्त का भी हस्तक्षेप करने का विरोध होने लगा।
• अमेरिका में इस युद्ध के सम्बन्ध में बहुत विरोध पैदा हुआ। बहुत से लेखकों और विद्धानों के अनुसार इस युद्ध में अमेरिका को दखल देने की क्या आवश्यकता थी जिसमें उसके जान और माल की बहुत हानि हुई और बदले में बदनामी के इलावा उसे कुछ न मिला।

प्रश्न 33.
अमेरिका के खिलाफ वियतनामी युद्ध का निम्नलिखित के दृष्टिकोण से मूल्यांकन कीजिए
(क) हो ची मिन्ह भूलभुलैया मार्ग पर माल ढोने वाला कुली।
उत्तर-
(क) हो ची मिन्ह मार्ग पर माल ढोने वाले कुली के दृष्टिकोण से वियतनामी युद्ध का मूल्यांकन-यूनएसनएन और वियतनाम में होने वाले युद्ध (1965-1972) में कुलियों ने बड़ी महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका अदा की। उन्होंने अनेक खतरों के . होते हुए भी अपनी पीठ पर 22 किलो माल कर या साईकिल पर 70 किलो माल लादकर उनरी वियतनाम से दक्षिणी वियतनाम पहुँचाया। यह उन्हीं की सेवाओं का फल था कि वियतनामी सेनाएँ भूख-प्यास से बच गई और असले के निरन्तर पहुँचते रहने से उनका हौसला कायम रहा और वे यूनएसनएन जैसे महान् शक्ति का सफलतापूर्वक मुकाबला कर सकी।

(ख) एक महिला सिपाही।
उत्तर-
एक महिला सिपाही और यूनएसन-वियतनामी युद्ध-वियतनामी महिला-सिपाही भी यूनएसनएन होने वाले युद्ध में अथाह विश्वास और देश-प्रेम दिखाने में अद्वितीय रहीं। उन्होंने देश के लिये किसी भी प्रकार का सेवा-कार्य करने से इंकार नहीं किया। उन्होंने वक्त पड़ने पर कुलियों का भी काम किया और विदेशी साम्राज्यवादियों का मुकाबला करने और उनसे लड़ने में भी पीछे न रहीं। उन्होने छः हवाई-अपवों का भी निर्माण किया, अगणित बम्बों को निष्क्रीय बना दिया और शत्रु के 15 के लगभग हवाई जहाजों को नीचे मार गिराया। ऐसा अनुमान है कि युद्ध सम्बन्धी अनेक कार्यों में कोई 1.5 मिलियन महिलायें सिपाही के स्थानीय कार्यकर्ताओं और निपुण-सेवकों के रूप में कार्य कर रही थी। ऐसे सेवाभाव और देश-प्रेम के उदाहरण कम ही देखने को मिलते हैं।

प्रश्न 34.
वियतनाम में साम्राज्यवाद विरोधी संघर्ष में महिलाओं की क्या भूमिका थी?
उत्तर-
वियतनाम में साम्राज्यवाद विरोधी संघर्ष में महिलाओं की भूमिका-जैसा कि ऊपर के प्रश्न में बताया जा चुका है कि वियतनाम में साम्राज्यावाद के विरोधी संघर्ष में महिलाओं ने बड़ी महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई। उन्होंने कंधे से कंधा मिलाकर पुरुषों का साथ दिया। जिस किसी परिस्थिति में उन्हें डाल दिया गया वे पीछे न रही। उन्होंने माल ढोने वाले कुलियों के रूप में कार्य किया और यदि उन्हें सिपाही के रूप में कार्य करने को कहा गया तो वे पीछे न रही। एक अनुमान के अनुसार कोई 1.5 मिलियन महिलायें देश को विदेशी साम्राज्य वादियों से लड़ने के विभिन्न कार्यों में कार्यरत थी। कुछ ने तो केवल हवाई अपवों का निर्माण ही किया वरन् शत्रु के कई हवाई जहाज़ भी नीचे मार गिराए। उन्होंने महान् धैर्य और अथाह देश प्रेम का जो परिचय दिया वह कम ही देखने को मिलता है।

प्रश्न 35.
उपनिवेशों के विकास क्यों आवश्यक थे? इस विषय में बर्नार्ड के विचार बताइए।
उत्तर-
अलग-अलग लोगों ने इस विषय पर अलग-अलग तर्क दिए कि क्या उपनिवेशों का विकास आवश्यक है। फ्रांसीसियों ने उपनिवेशों का निर्माण वियतनाम में व्यापार तथा सैनिकों के आने-जाने के लिए किया। बर्नार्ड के अनुसार उपनिवेशों का विकास आवश्यक था। उपनिवेश बनाने का मुख्य उद्देश्य लाभ कमाने के लिए किया जाता था। वे यह मानते थे कि इसके कारण गुलाम देश की अर्थव्यवस्था का विकास होता है तथा जीवन, स्तर बेहतर होता है, क्योंकि वे अधिक सामान खरीद पाने में सक्षम हो पाते हैं। .

प्रश्न 36.
वियतनाम की औपनिवेशिक अर्थव्यवस्था पर टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर-
जब फ्रांस ने वियतनाम पर कब्जा करना आरम्भ किया, उस समय वियतनाम चावल और रबड़ की खेती पर आश्रित था। इन जगहों पर फ्रांस तथा वियतनाम के धनी व्यक्तियों का स्वामित्व था। वियतनामी श्रमिकों को एकतरफा अनुबंध के तहत काम करना पड़ता था। इन अनुबंधों में मालिकों के पास अधिकार होते थे परन्तु मजदूरों के पास कोई अधिकार नहीं थे। अनुबंध तोड़ने पर उन्हें सजा भुगतनी पड़ती थी। ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में जमींदारों का कब्जा था। इस कारण वहाँ का जीवन स्तर गिर रहा था।

प्रश्न 37.
फ्रांसीसियों के सामने पाश्चात्य शिक्षा लागू करने में समस्याएँ थीं। ये समस्याएँ कौन-सी थीं?
उत्तर-
फ्रांसीसियों का मानना था कि वे वियतनाम में आधुनिकता ला रहे थे। इसके लिए उनका जोर पाश्चात्य शिक्षा देने पर था। वे इसके लिए पुराने धर्मों, संस्कृतियों आदि को भी नष्ट करना चाहते थे। परन्तु उनके समक्ष निम्न समस्याएँ थीं-

• लोग अपनी पुरानी परम्पराओं, धर्मों आदि को छोड़ना नहीं चाहते थे, जबकि ये चीजें फ्रांसीसियों के लिए रुकावट थी।
• दूसरी समस्या थी कि वियतनाम में किसको कितनी शिक्षा दी जाए। फ्रांसीसी शिक्षित कामगर चाहते थे, परन्तु यदि गुलामों को शिक्षा प्रदान की जाती तो समस्याएँ उत्पन्न हो जातीं।
• यदि वियतनाम नागरिकों ने शिक्षा प्राप्त की तो यह नौकरियों आदि के लिए खतरा हो सकता था।
• अन्य समस्या भाषा से संबंधित थी कि स्कूलों में वियतनामी भाषा पढ़ाई जाए अथवा फ्रांसीसी।

प्रश्न 38.
आधुनिक बनने के तरीके में चीन और जापान ने वियतनाम में क्या भूमिका अदा की?
उत्तर-
वियतनामी राष्ट्रवादियों के सदैव चीन और जापान के साथ घनिष्ठ सम्बन्ध रहे। ये दोनों राष्ट्र परिवर्तन के प्रतीक थे। जो वियतनामी फ्रांसीसी पुलिस से बचना चाहते थे, ये राष्ट्र उन्हें शरण देते। ये देश क्रांतिकारियों के नेटवर्क थे। लगभग 300 वियतनामी छात्र 1907-08 तक आधुनिक शिक्षा प्राप्त करने के लिए जापान गए, वे फ्रांसीसियों को बाहर निकालना चाहते थे। इन छात्रों ने विदेशी हथियारों की सहायता ली। जापान अब तक अत्यधिक आधुनिक हो चुका था। इन विद्यार्थियों ने जपान से सहायता माँगी। इस प्रकार चीन के घनाक्रमों से भी वियतनाम अत्यन्त प्रभावित हुआ। वियतनामी छात्रों ने वियतनाम मुक्ति एसोसिएशन का निर्माण किया। वे लोकतान्त्रिक गणराज्य की स्थापना चाहते थे।

प्रश्न 39.
हो ची मिन्ह पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए।
उत्तर-
हो ची मिन्ह का जन्म 1890 में हुआ। उन्होंने अपना जीवन वियतनाम को स्वतन्त्र करने में बिताया। उनका वास्तविक नाम गूयेन वान थान्ह था। उन्होने फ्रांसीसी स्कूलों में शिक्षा प्राप्त की। वे कॉमिन्टन के सदस्य बन लेनिन से मिले।1941 में वे तीस साल यूरोप, थाइलैण्ड तथा चीन में बिताने के बाद लौटे। वियतनाम के गणराज्य के वे प्रथम राष्ट्रपति बने। उनकी मृत्यु 1969 में हुई।

प्रश्न 40.
निम्नलिखित पर टिप्पणियाँ लिखें-
(क) नापाम
(ख) एजेन्ट ऑरेंज।
उत्तर-
(क) नापान-नापाम अग्नि बमों के लिए गैसोलिन फुलाने वाला एक ऑर्गेनिक कम्पाउड है। यह सम्मिश्रण धीरे-धीरे जलता है। मानव त्वचा पर चिपकने पर भी यह जलता रहता है तथा उसे नष्ट कर देता है। वियतनाम के युद्ध तथा द्वितीय विश्वयुद्ध में अमेरिका ने इसका प्रयोग किया।

(ख) एजेन्ट ऑरेंज-यह एक प्रकार का जहर है जिसे पेड़-पौधों पर छिड़का जाता है जिससे पेड़-पौधे नष्ट हो जाते हैं। जिन ड्रमों में इन्हें रखा जाता है, उस पर ऑरेन्ज पट्टियाँ बनी होती है, इसलिए इसे एजेन्ट ऑरेंज कहा गया। लगभग 1.1 करोड़ गैलेन का छिड़काव अमरीकी विमानों ने 1961-1971 के मध्य वियतनाम पर किया जिससे उनके जंगल तथा खेत समाप्त हो जाएँ। इससे वियतनामी सैनिक कहीं नहीं छिप सकते थे तथा उन्हे समाप्त किया जा सकता था।

वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित रिक्त स्थानों को दिए गए उपयुक्त शब्दों से पूरा करें।

(i) इण्डो-वाइना क्षेत्र में पहले……..का वर्चस्व था। (फ्रांस, चीन)
(ii) वियतनाम उस रास्ते से भी जुड़ा रहा है जिसे समुद्री……..कहा जाता है। (सिलक रूट, बंदरगाह)
(iii) ……….में फ्रेंच इण्डो-चाइना का गठन किया गया। (1887, 1888)
(iv) 1873 में फ्रांसीसियों ने………..को उत्तर में स्थित टोंकिन प्रांत में फ्रांसीसी उपनिवेश स्थापित करने का जिम्मा सौंपा थां (गार्निए, हो ची मिन्ह)
(v) पूरे क्षेत्र पर नियन्त्रण कायम करने के लिए……….का निर्माण शुरू किया गया। (संरचनागत परियोजनाओ, नहरों)
(vi) पश्चिमी ढंग की शिक्षा देने के लिए………..में टोंकिन फ्री स्कूल खोला गया। (1907, 1908)
(vii) 1930 में हो ची मिन्ह ने…………की स्थापना की। (वियतनामी कम्युनिस्ट पार्टी, पेरिस शांति संधि)
(viii) 1903 में हनोई के नवनिर्मित आधुनिक भाग में………..की बीमारी फैल गई (ब्यूबॉनिक प्लेग, डेंगू)
(ix) …………में चूहों को पकड़ने की मुहिम आरम्भ की गई। (1902, 1903)
(x) …………आंदोलन 1939 में आरम्भ हुआ। (समन्वयवाद, होआ हाओ)
(xi) 1908 में……गृह मंत्रालय ने वियतनामी विद्यार्थियों की गतिविधियों का दमन आरम्भ कर दिया। (फ्रांसीसी, जापानी)
उत्तर-
(i) चीन,
(ii) सिल्क रूट,
(iii) 1887,
(iv) गार्निए,
(v) संरचनागत परियोजनाओं,
(vi) 1907,
(vii) वियतनामी कम्युनिस्ट पार्टी,
(viii) ब्यूबॉनिक प्लेग,
(ix) 1902,
(x) होआ हाओ,
(xi) जापानी।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित में से सही (√)व गलत (x) की पहचान करें।
(i) 1930 के दशक में आई महामंदी का वियतनाम पर कोई असर नहीं पड़ा। ।
(ii) हो ची मिन्ह के नाम का अर्थ पथप्रदर्शक था।
(iii) 1967 के बाद कोई भी सैनिक हो ची मिन्ह भूल-भुलैया मार्ग से नहीं जा पाया।
(iv) किसी भी महिला ने राष्ट्रवादी आंदोलन में भाग नहीं लिया।
(v) पुराने जमाने की विद्रोही औरतों का महिमामण्डन किया जाने लगा।
(vi) जनवरी, 1975 में पेरिस में एक शांति समझौते पर हस्ताक्षर किए गए।
(vii) 30 अप्रैल, 1975 को एन.एल.एफ. ने राष्ट्रपति के महल पर कब्जा कर लिया।
(viii) अमेरिकी फ्रोजों ने नापाम, एजेंट ऑरेन्ज और फॉस्फोरस
जैसे रासायनिक हथियारों का प्रयोग किया।
(ix) वियतनामी कम्युनिस्ट पार्टी को बाद में इण्डो-चाइनीज . कम्युनिस्ट पार्टी का नाम दिया गया।
(x) फ्रांसीसियों की पराजय के पश्चात् वियतनाम एकीकृत हो गया।
(xi) सितम्बर, 1955 में हनोई को आजाद करा दिया।
(xii) सुन यात सेन के नेतृत्व में चले आंदोलन के जरिए जनता ने लम्बे समय से चले आ रहे राजवंश को 1911 में गद्दी छोड़ने पर विवश कर दिया और गणतन्त्र को स्थापना की गई।
(xiii) 1940 में जापान ने वियतनाम पर कब्जा कर लिया।
(xiv) 1941 में फ्रांसीसी डॉक्टरों ने मान लिया कि हुइन्ह फू सो पागल हैं।
उत्तर-
(i) x,
(ii) √
(iii) x
(iv) x,
(v) √
(vi) x,
(vii) √
(viii) √,
(ix) √,
(x) x,
(xi) x,
(xii) √,
(xiii) √,
(xiv) x.

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में दिए गए विकल्पों में सही का चयन कीजिए।

(i) इन्डो-चाइना क्षेत्र निम्नलिखित से बना है
(क) वियतनाम
(ख) लाओस ।
(ग) कम्बोडिया
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

(ii) ……… में पहली बार फ्रांसीसी सेना ने वियतनाम की धरती पर डेरा डाला।
(क) 1859
(ख) 1858
(ग) 1857
(घ) 1853

(iii) वियतनाम की औपनिवेशिक अर्थव्यवस्था मुख्य रूप से निम्न पर आश्रित थी-
(क) चावल की खेती
(ख) रबड़ के बागानों
(ग) क तथा ख दोनों
(घ) उपर्युक्त में कोई नहीं

(iv) वियतनाम में रहने वाले फ्रांसीसी नागरिकों को क्या कहा जाता था?
(क) कोलोन
(ख) कोलोनाइज्ड
(ग) विदेशी
(घ) नागरिक

(v) ………… में कोचिनचाइना फ्रांस का उपनिवेश बन गया।
(क) 1864
(ख) 1865
(ग) 1866
(घ) 1867

(vi) वियतनाम गणराज्य की स्थापना……….वर्ष में हुई।
(क) 1972
(ख) 1976
(ग) 1977
(घ) 1978

(vii) कन्फ्यू शियस एक ………… विचारक थे।
(क) चीनी
(ख) जापानी
(ग) फ्रांसीसी ।
(घ) वियतनामी

(viii) ………. फ्रांसीसी कब्जे और ईसाई धर्म के प्रसार के विरुद्ध आरम्भिक विद्रोह था।
(क) राष्ट्रीवादी आंदोलन
(ख) समन्वयवाद
(ग) स्कॉलर्स रिवोल्ट
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी आंदोलन

(ix) द टिस्ट्री ऑफ द लॉस ऑफ वियतनाम ………. ने लिखी।
(क) हो ची मिन्ह
(ख) लियाँग
(ग) फान बोई चाऊ
(घ) फान चू त्रिन्ह

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 3 भारत में राष्ट्रवाद Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 3 भारत में राष्ट्रवाद

भारत में राष्ट्रवाद Important Questions HBSE 10th Class प्रश्न 1.
जबरन भर्ती का क्या अर्थ था?
उत्तर-
वह प्रक्रिया जिसमें भारत के लोगों को जबरदस्ती सेना में भर्ती किया जाता था, उसे जबरन भर्ती कहा गया।

Bharat Mein Rashtravad Important Question HBSE 10th Class प्रश्न 2.
कौन-सी महामारी 1920-21 के मध्य फैली?
उत्तर-
फ्लू की महामारी 1920-21 में फैली जिसमें लगभग 120-130 लाख लोग मारे गए।

HBSE 10th Class Important Questions History Chapter 3 भारत में राष्ट्रवाद प्रश्न 3.
अफ्रीका में गाँधी जी ने सत्याग्रह क्यों प्रयोग किया?
उत्तर-
अफ्रीका में गाँधी जी ने सत्याग्रह नस्लभेद (apartheid) सरकार के विरुद्ध किया। इसके लिए उन्होंने वहाँ एक जनांदोलन आरम्भ किया जिसे सत्याग्रह कहा गया।

Chapter 3 भारत में राष्ट्रवाद Important Questions HBSE 10th Class प्रश्न 4.
सत्याग्रह का क्या अर्थ है।
उत्तर-
हिंसा के साथ सत्य के लिए आग्रह करना सत्याग्रह कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 5.
अहमदाबाद में सत्याग्रह का प्रयोग गाँधी जी ने क्यों किया?
उत्तर-
सूती कपड़ा कारखानों के मजदूरों की सहायता के लिए अहमदाबाद में सत्याग्रह चलाया गया।

प्रश्न 6.
बहिष्कार क्या है?
उत्तर-
बहिष्कार का अर्थ है कि किसी से सम्पर्क रखने, उसकी वस्तुएँ प्रयोग करने या उसकी गतिविधियों में भागीदारी से मना करना।

प्रश्न 7.
असहयोग कार्यक्रम को स्वीकृति कब मिली?
उत्तर-
दिसम्बर, 1920 में कांग्रेस के नागपुर अधिवेशन में एक समझौते के अन्तर्गत असहयोग कार्यक्रम को स्वीकृत प्राप्त

प्रश्न 8.
कांग्रेस के लोग चुनावों का बहिष्कार करने में क्यों हिचकिचा रहे थे?
उत्तर-
कांग्रेस के लोगों को यह डर था कि यदि चुनावों का बहिष्कार हुआ तो हिंसा उत्पन्न हो सकती थी। अतः वे इसमें हिचकिचा रहे थे।

प्रश्न 9.
खिलाफत समिति के गठन के पीछे क्या उद्देश्य था?
उत्तर-
द्वितीय युद्ध में ऑटोमन तुर्की हार चुका था। यह अफवाहें फैली कि इस्लामिक विश्व पर एक सख्त शांति संधि लागू होगी। खलीफा की शक्तियों की रक्षा के लिए मार्च, 1919 में खिलाफत समिति का निर्माण हुआ।

प्रश्न 10.
जनवरी, 1921 में किस आंदोलन का आरम्भ हुआ?
उत्तर-
असहयोग खिलाफत आंदोलन का आरम्भ जनवरी, 1921 में हुआ।

प्रश्न 11.
पिकेटिंग क्या है?
उत्तर-
प्रदर्शन या विरोध का वह तरीका जिसमें दुकान. फैक्टरी या दफ्तर के अन्दर जाने के रास्ते को रोकते हैं उसे पिकेटिंग कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 12.
1921 से 1922 के मध्य विदेशी कपड़ों के आयात में कमी क्यों आई?
उत्तर-
अहसयोग आंदोलन के समय विदेशी कपड़ों का बहिष्कार किया गया व्यापारियों ने विदेशी वस्तुओं के व्यापार में पैसा लगाना बंद कर दिया। लोग केवल भारतीय कपड़े ही पहनने लगे जिससे आयात 102 करोड़ से कम होकर केवल करोड़ रह गया।

प्रश्न 13.
असहयोग आंदोलन धीमा क्यों पड़ने लगा?
उत्तर-
असहयोग आंदोलन कुछ समय पश्चात् हल्का पढने लगा। इसका कारण था कि मिलों में बना कपड़ा हाथ के बने खादी से सस्ता था। गरीब खादी खरीदने में असमर्थ था। व्यवसायों के लिए वैकल्पिक संस्थान भी नहीं थे या उनकी स्थापना धीरे हो रही थी। इसके परिणामस्वरूप लोग जल्दी ही कामों पर वापिस लौटने लगे।

प्रश्न 14.
गिरमिटिया मजदूर किसे कहा जाता था?
उत्तर-
औपनिवेशिक भारत में ब्रिटिश सरकार मजदूरों को एक अनुबंध के अन्तर्गत फिजी, गुयाना, वेस्टइंडीज आदि जगहों पर ले जाती। इन मजदूरों को गिरमिटिया श्रमिक कहा जाता था।

प्रश्न 15.
बाबा रामचन्द्र के आंदोलन के विषय में टिप्पणी लिखिए।
उत्तर-
बाबा रामचन्द्र ने अवध में किसानों के लिए आंदोलन छेड़ा। वे जमींदारों तथा तालुकदारों के विरुद्ध थे जो किसानों से भारी लगान और अलग-अगल प्रकार के कर वसूल करते थे। वे किसानों से बिना किसी पारिश्रमिक के काम करवाते थे। बाबा रामचन्द्र ने यह माँग की कि बेगार की समाप्ति हो, कर कम किया जाए तथा उन जमींदारों का बहिष्कार किया जाए जो दमनकारी हैं। बाबा रामचन्द्र के नेतृत्व में अवध किसान सभा को गठिन किया।

प्रश्न 16.
दांडी मार्च के पीछे गाँधी जी का क्या उद्देश्य था?
उत्तर-
गाँधी जी ने दांडी मार्च नमक पर लगने वाले कर को समाप्त करने के लिए छेड़ा। इसके अतिरिक्त 31 जनवरी, 1930 को उन्होंने इरविन को पत्र लिखा जिसमें 11 माँगे था। इन मांगों के द्वारा गाँधी जी पूरे देश को जोड़ना चाहते थे। नमक का प्रयोग सभी लोग करते थे। ब्रिटिश सरकार का नमक पर कर लेना दमनकारी था, जो गाँधी जी समाप्त करना चाहते थे।

प्रश्न 17.
दांडी मार्च पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर-
जब वायसराय इरविन ने गाँधी जी की माँग पूरी नहीं की, उन्होंने 11 मार्च से दांडी मार्च का आरम्भ 78 वॉलंटियरों के साथ किया। इस यात्रां को दांडी नामक तटीय क्षेत्र में समाप्त होना था जो गुजराती कस्बे में था। 24 दिन तक वे लगातार चलने के बाद दांडी पहुँचे। 6 अप्रैल को वहाँ पहुँच का उन्होंने समुद्र के पानी को उबालकर नमक बनाया जो कानून का एक उल्लंघन था।

प्रश्न 18.
सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन का समर्थन किस प्रकार का रहा?
उत्तर-
सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन औपनिवेशिक कानूनों का उल्लंघन करता था। विभिन्न क्षेत्रों में नमक बनाकर कानून तोड़ा गया, नमक के कारखानों के समक्ष विरोध किया गया, विदेशी कपड़ों का बहिष्कार किया गया, दुकानों की पिकेटिंग हुई। किसानों ने भूमि पर लगान देने से मना कर दिया। गाँवों के कर्मचारियों ने नौकरियाँ छोड़ दीं। वन कानूनों का उल्लंघन किया गया।

प्रश्न 19.
गाँधी जी ने सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन वापस क्यों लिया?
उत्तर-
औपनिवेशिक सरकार ने कानूनों का उल्लंघन देखकर कांग्रेस के नेताओं की गिरफ्तारी आरम्भ कर दी। जल्दी ही दूसरे स्थानों पर हिंसा आरम्भ हो गई। अब्दुल गफ्फार खॉन को गिरफ्तार किया गया। इस पर जनता सड़कों पर उतर आई। उन पर पुलिस ने गोलियाँ चलाई। बहुत से लोग भी मारे गए। परन्तु जब गाँधी जी को गिरफ्तार किया गया तब औद्योगिक मजदूरों ने अदालतों, दफ्तरों आदि पर हमले किए। बढ़ती हिंसा को देखकर गाँधी जी ने आंदोलन वापस ले लिया।

प्रश्न 20.
गाँधी-इरविन के मध्य क्या समझौता हुआ?
उत्तर-
सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन के पश्चात् 5 मार्च, 1931 को गाँधी-इरविन समझौता हुआ। उन्होंने लंदन में होने वाले गोलमेज सम्मेलन में भाग लेने की बात मान ली जिसका पहले कांग्रेस बहिष्कार कर चुकी थी। ब्रिटिश सरकार इस समझौते के तहत् राजनैतिक नेताओं को रिहा करने के लिए तैयार हो गई।

प्रश्न 21.
भारत माता की छवि का विकास किस प्रकार हुआ?
उत्तर-
बीसवीं सदी में भारत माता की छवि का विकास होना आरम्भ हुआ। भारत माता की तस्वीर प्रथम बार बंकिमचन्द्र चट्टोपाध्याय ने बनाई। उन्होंने वन्दे मातरम् का गीत भी 1870 में लिखा। अबीनद्रनाथ टैगोर ने संन्यासिनी के रूप में भारत माता को चित्रित किया जो गम्भीर, शांत तथा दैवी शक्ति का प्रतीक थी। इसके अतिरिक्त 19वीं शताब्दी में लोक-कथाओं में राष्ट्रवादियों की गूंज को सुना जा सकता था। बंगाल में रवीन्द्रनाथ टैगोर ने लोक-कथाओं, गीतों आदि के द्वारा राष्ट्रवाद का विकास किया। नटेसा शास्त्री ने तमिल कथाओं के द्वारा राष्ट्रवाद की वृद्धि की। इसके बाद राष्ट्रवाद की छवि की व्याख्या करने के लिए चिह्नों का प्रयोग होने लगा जैसे गाँधी जी ने 1921 तक तिरंगा तैयार किया जिसमें तीन रंग थे।

प्रश्न 22.
लोगों को एकजुट करने में क्या समस्या थी?
उत्तर-
लोगों को एकजुट करने में कई समस्याएँ थीं। राष्ट्रवाद में भारत के अतीत का गुणगान किया जा रहा था, परन्तु यह गुणगान केवल हिन्दुओं के इतिहास का ही प्रतीक था। भारत माता की जिस छवि का निर्माण किया गया, वह हिन्दुओं का प्रतीक था। इस कारण दूसरे समुदायों के लोग स्वयं को अलग समझने लगे।

प्रश्न. 23.
1921 में असहयोग आंदोलन में शामिल होने वाले सभी सामाजिक समूहों की सूची बनाइए। इसके बाद उनमें से किन्हीं तीन को चुन कर उनकी आशाओं और संघर्षों के बारे में लिखते हुए यह दर्शाइए कि वे आंदोलन में शामिल क्यों हुए।
उत्तर-
1921 के असहयोग आंदोलन में समाज के अनेक समूहों ने भाग लिया जिसमे से विशेषकर उल्लेखनीय है:

1. नगरों के ममय श्रेणी के लोग
2. ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों के किसान लोग
3. जंगली क्षेत्रों के आदिवासियों ने
4. बागान में काम करने वाले

विभिन्न प्रकार लोगों ने इन सामाजिक समूहों ने असहयोग आंदोलन में क्यों भाग लिया अथवा असहयोग आन्दोलन के आर्थिक प्रभाव-पर के विभिन्न सामाजिक समूहों ने असहयोग आन्दोलन में इसलिये भाग लिया क्योंकि उन्हें अपने-अपने ढंग से आर्थिक उद्देश्यों की प्राप्ति की सम्भावना नज़र आई।

1. नगरों में रहने वाले लोगों ने इस आन्दोलन में इसलिये भाग लिया कि यदि लोग विदेशी माल का बहिष्कार करेंगे तो उनका अपना बनाया हुआ माल तेजी से बिकेगा और उनकी औद्योगिक इकाइयाँ फिर से काम करने लगेंगी। इससे लोगों के लिए नौकरी के कई नए अवसर खुलेंगे।
2. ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों के किसानों ने असहयोग आंदोलन में बढ़-चढ़कर इसलिये भाग लिया कि एक तो उन्हें बड़े-बड़े जमींदारों के अत्याचारों से मुक्ति मिलेगी और दूसरे उन्हें कठोर से लगान इकट्ठा करने वाले अधिकारियों के जुल्मों से निजात मिलेगी।
3. बागान में काम करने वाले विभिन्न प्रकार के लोगों ने इसलिये असहयोग आंदोलन में भाग लिया क्योंकि एक तो उन्हें बागान की जेल-सामान चारदीवारों से बाहर जाने की आज्ञा मिल जायेगी और दूसरे वे बागान मालिकों की दासता और पशु-समान व्यवहार से मुक्ति प्राप्त कर लेगे और स्वतन्त्र वातावरण में जीवन व्यतीत कर सकेंगे। केवल यही नहीं, उन्हें बागान में कम वेतन मिलने की समस्या से भी छुटकारा मिल । जायेगा।

प्रश्न 24.
सिविल नाफरमानी में महिलाओं ने क्या योगदान दिया?
उत्तर-
सिविल नाफरमारनी अथवा सविनय अवज्ञा में औरतों ने बढ़-चढ़ कर भाग लिया। नमक आंदोलन के समय वे गाँधी जी को सुनने आतीं। उन्होंने जुलूसों में भाग लिया, नमक बनाकर नमक कानून का उल्लंघन किया। कई औरतें जेल भी गई। शहरों में उच्च जाति तथा गाँवा में किसान परिवार की महिलाओं ने भाग लिया, परन्तु उनकी स्थिति में बदलाव नहीं आया। कोई भी महत्त्वपूर्ण पद महिलाओं ने ग्रहण नहीं किया।

प्रश्न 25.
दलितों ने किस अपने अधिकारों के लिए लड़ाई की? गाँधी जी की इसमें क्या भूमिका थी?
उत्तर-
गाँधी जी दलितों को ईश्वर की संतान मानते थे। उन्होंने उनको ‘हरिजन’ का नाम दिया। उनका मानना था कि यदि अस्पृश्यता समाप्त नहीं की जाएगी तो आने वाले सौ सालों तक भी स्वराज प्राप्ति सम्भव नहीं है। गाँधी जी ने सत्याग्रह उनके अधिकारों के लिए किया। इसमें वे चाहते थे कि हरिजनों को मंदिरों, तालाबों, कुओं आदि पर जाने का अधिकार दिया जाए। इसके लिए उन्होंने उच्च जातियों से छुआ-छूत छोड़ने का आग्रह किया। वे उनके लिए शिक्षा संस्थानों में आरक्षण चाहते थे। दलित नेता स्वयं ही अपनी इन समस्याओं का हल ढूँढने लगे। इसके लिए उन्होंने स्वयं को संगठित किया। वे मानते थे कि राजनैतिक सशक्तिकरण इस प्रक्रिया के लिए महत्त्वपूर्ण है। इस कारण दलित नेता सविनय अवज्ञा से दूर रहे।

प्रश्न 26.
दलितों के लिए डॉ. अम्बेडकर की भूमिका पर टिप्पणी करें।
उत्तर-
डॉ. अम्बेडकर स्वयं दलित वर्ग के थे। अतः वे उनकी समस्याओं के विषय में जानते थे। उन्होंने दलित वर्ग एसोसिएशन का गठन 1930 में किया। वे गोलमेज सम्मेलन में अलग निर्वाचन क्षेत्र की माँग करने लगे। यह माँग ब्रिटिश सरकार के द्वारा मान ली गई तो गाँधी जी अनशन पर बैठ गए। बाद में अम्बेडकर ने गाँधी ने जी के साथ पूना पैक्ट का समझौता किया। इसके पश्चात् केन्द्रीय एवं विधान परिषदों में दलितों के लिए सीटों का आरक्षण किया।

प्रश्न. 27.
राजनीतिक नेता पृथक क्षेत्रों के सवाल पर क्यों बँटे हुए थे।
उत्तर-
पृथक निर्वाचन पद्धति से हमारा अभिप्राय ऐसी पद्धति से है जब लोग केवल अपने धर्म के लोगों को ही वोट दे सकते हैं, दूसरे धर्म वालों को नहीं। भारत में इस पद्धति का प्रयोग करना अंग्रेजी सरकार की जान-बूझकर की गई शरारत थी जो भारतीय जनता को धर्म के नाम पर आपस में बाँटकर राष्ट्रीय आन्दोलन को पंगु और कमजोर बनाना चाहती थी और लोगों में फूट डालकर अपना यहाँ टिके रहने का स्वार्थ सिद्ध करना चाहती थी। वे इस हथियार से प्रयोग किया कि अन्त में 1947 ई. में देश बँटकर ही रहा।

• कांग्रेस ने ब्रिटिश सरकार की पृथक निर्वाचन पद्धति की भावना को प्रोत्साहित करने के लिये उसकी कड़ी आलोचना की क्योंकि ब्रिटिश सरकार की यह चाल थी कि वे स्थानीय लोगों को किसी न किसी मसले पर उलझाए रखें और अपने देश का बंटवारा करके रहेगी। वह तो देश की एकता के लिए संयुक्त निर्वाचन प्रणाली के पक्ष में थी।
• मुस्लिम लोग के नेता-जैसे मोहम्मद इकबाल और मि. जिन्ना पृथक निर्वाचन प्रणाली को मुसलमानों के हितों की सुरक्षा के लिये आवश्यक समझते थे। उनके विचार में भारत में हिन्दुओं की संख्या अधिक है इसलिये संयुक्त निर्वाचन प्रणाली के चलते मुसलमान की हानि होगी। ऐसा विचार रखने में ब्रिटिश सरकार के अपने औपनिवेशिक हित भी छिपे हुए थे।
• दलित श्रेणियों के नेता, विशेषकर बी. आर. अम्बेडकर भी पृथक निर्वाचक-पद्धति के पक्ष में थे क्योंकि उनका विचार था कि इसके बिना दलित श्रेणियों के लोगों के हितों की रक्षा नहीं हो सकेगी। महात्मा गाँधी के मौन रखने पर वे संयुक्त चुनाव पर वे संयुक्त चुनाव प्रणाली को पूना पेक्ट नामक समझौते के कारण मान तो गए परन्तु जब केन्द्रीय और प्रान्तीय विधान सभाओं में दलित सदस्यों को सीटें निश्चित कर दी गई।

वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित रिक्त स्थानों को दिए गए उपयुक्त शब्दों से पूरा करें।
(i) भारत में आधुनिक……….के उदय की परिघटना उपनिवेशवाद विरोधी आंदोलन के साथ जुड़ी थी। (धर्म, राष्ट्रवाद)
(ii) विश्वयुद्ध ने एक नई आर्थिक और…….स्थिति पैदा कर दी। (धार्मिक राजनीतिक)
(iii) प्रथम विश्वयुद्ध के दौरान………..शुरू किया गया। (आयकर, सीमा शुल्क)।
(iv) महात्मा गाँधी……….में भारत लौटे। (फरवरी, 1915, जनवरी, 1915)
(v) गाँधी जी……..में नस्लभेद के विरुद्ध खड़े हुए। (अफ्रीका, भारत)
(vi) 1918 में गाँधीजी सूती कपड़ा कारखानों के मजदूरों के बीच सत्याग्रह आंदोलन चलाने…………जा पहुंचे। (चम्पारन, अहमदाबाद)
(vii) 1919 में गाँधी जी ने………के विरुद्ध आन्दोलन छेड़ा। (साइमन कमीशन, रॉलट एक्ट)
(viii) ………को जलियाँवाला हत्याकाण्ड हुआ। (14 अप्रैल, 13 अप्रैल)
(ix) गाँधी जी की प्रसिद्ध पुस्तक नाम………..था। (हिन्द स्वराज, आनन्द मठ)
(x) 1921-22 के मध्य……….का आयात आधा रह गया। (विदेशी कपड़े, खादी)
(xi) अवध किसान सभा का गठन………..ने किया। (गाँधी जी, बाबा रामचन्द्र)
(xii) ……….की गूडेम पहाड़ियों में 1920 के दशक के
आरम्भ में एक उग्र गुरिल्ला आंदोलन फैल गया। (आंधप्रदेश, पंजाब)
उत्तर-
(i) राष्ट्रवाद,
(ii) राजनीतिक,
(iii) आयकर,
(iv) जनवरी, 1915,
(v) अफ्रीका,
(vi) अहमदाबाद,
(vii) रॉलट एक्ट,
(viii) 13 अप्रैल,
(ix) हिन्द स्वराज,
(x) विदेशी कपड़े,
(xi) बाबा रामचन्द्र,
(xii) आन्ध्र प्रदेश।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित में से सही (√) व गलत (x) की पहचान करें।

(i) असहयोग-खिलाफत आंदोलन जनवरी, 1921 में आरम्भ हुआ।
(ii) बाबा रामचन्द्र ने चम्पारन में कृषकों के हित में आंदोलन छेड़ा।
(iii) बेगार मजदूर पारिश्रमिक लेकर काम करते थे।
(iv) आसाम के बागान मजदूरों के लिए आजादी का अर्थ अपने कार्यक्षेत्र से बाहर आना-जाना था।
(v) चौरी-चौरा की घटना 1922 में हुई।
(vi) सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन 1923 में गाँधी जी ने वापस ले लिया।
(vii) 1926 से कृषि उत्पादों की कीमतें बढ़ने लगीं।
(viii) गाँधी जी के साथ नमक आंदोलन में 78 लोगों ने भाग लिया।
(ix) नमक आंदोलन में गाँधी जी 28 दिन चले।
उत्तर-
(i) √,
(ii) x,
(iii) x
(iv) √,
(v) √,
(vi) x,
(vii) x,
(viii) √,
(ix) x,

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में दिए गए विकल्पों में सही का चयन कीजिए।

(i) गाँधीजी की दांडी यात्रा…….अप्रैल को समाप्त हुई।
(क) 6
(ख) 7
(ग) 8
(घ) 5
उत्तर-
(क) 6

(ii) 1928 में………..भारत पहुँचा।
(क) वायसराय इरविन
(ख) रॉल एक्ट
(ग) साइमन कमशीन
(घ) उपर्युक्त कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(ग) साइमन कमशीन

(iii) जून 1920, किसने अवध का दौरा किया
(क) गाँधी जी
(ख) नेहरू
(ग) मुहम्मद इकबाल
(घ) डॉ, अम्बेडकर
उत्तर-
(ख) नेहरू

(iv) ………के बीच कीमतों दोगुना हो चुकी थीं।
(क) 1915-18
(ख) 1913-18
(ग) 1918-19
(घ) 1920-21
उत्तर-
(ख) 1913-18

(v) 1916 में गाँधी जी ने किस क्षेत्र में आंदोलन आरम्भ किया?
(क) बिहार, चम्पारन
(ख) अवध
(ग) अहमदाबाद
(घ) उपर्युक्त कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(क) बिहार, चम्पारन

(vi) रॉलट एक्ट का विरोध किस रूप में आरम्भ हुआ?
(क) पिकेटिंग
(ख) हड़ताल
(ग) बहिष्कार
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर-
(ख) हड़ताल

(vii) पहले विश्वयुद्ध में किसकी पराजय हुई?
(क) फ्रांस
(ख) अमेरिका
(ग) ऑटोमन तुर्की
(घ) ब्रिटिश सरकार
उत्तर-
(ग) ऑटोमन तुर्की

(viii) गाँव के कौन-से सम्पन्न किसानों ने असहयोग आंदोलन में भाग लिया?
(क) गुजरात के पटीदार
(ख) उत्तरप्रदेश के जाट
(ग) उपर्युक्त दोनों
(घ) उपर्युक्त कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(ग) उपर्युक्त दोनों

(ix) लाहौर अधिवेश…………में आरम्भ हुआ।
(क) मई, 1924
(ख) मार्च, 1930
(ग) 1932
(घ) दिसम्बर, 1929
उत्तर-
(घ) दिसम्बर, 1929

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 5 Globalisation and the Indian Economy Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 5 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Multiple Choice Questions

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 HBSE Question 1.
A person who purchases goods and services in the market according to his needs is known as :
(a) Consumer
(b) Producer
(c) Distributer
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Consumer

Consumer Rights Important Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 2.
When did the United Nations adopt the guidelines for consumer protection?
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
Answer:
(c) 1985

HBSE 10th Class Important Questions Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights Question 3.
COPRA stands for
(a) Consumer Protection Act
(b) Consumer Preservation Act
(c) Consumer Protection Activities
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Consumer Protection Act

Question 4.
When was the Consumer Protection Act passed in India?
(a) 1986
(b) 1976
(c) 1980
(d) 1981
Answer:
(a) 1986

Question 5.
Which of the following rights is ensured to the citizens under the RTI Act?
(a) Right of information
(b) Right to safety
(c) Right to redressal
(d) Right to choice
Answer:
(a) Right of information

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a consumer right?
(a) Right to Choose
(b) Right to Safety
(c) Right to seek Redressal
(d) Right to Equality
Answer:
(d) Right to Equality

Question 7.
Which of the following organizations does not provide the certificate of standardization in India ?
(a) ISI
(b) HALLMARK
(c) AGMARK
(d) NSSO
Answer:
(d) NSSO

Question 8.
Which of the following certification mark is used in case of food products?
(a) Hallmark
(b) Agmark
(c) ISI
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Agmark

Question 9.
The district level court deals with the cases involving claims
(a) upto ₹ 10 lakh
(b) upto ₹ 20 lakh
(c) between ₹ 20 lakh to 1 crore
(d) exceeding ₹10 crore
Answer:
(b) upto ₹ 20 lakh

Question 10.
When is national consumers day celebrated in India ?
(a) 15th March
(b) 24 April
(c) 24 December
(d) 15 May
Answer:
(a) 15th March

Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. is a person who buys and uses a goods or service from the market after making a payment.
2. The consumer protection act, 1986 is popularly known as …………..
3. The district level court deals with the cases involving claims upto …………
4. In …………. the government of India enacted a law, popularly known as Act.
5. Consumers have the …………… against unfair trade practices and exploitation.
6. The National Consumers day is celebrated on …………..
7. …………… is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India.
8. ………….. is used for items made with precions metals like platinum, gold and
9. …………… have limited information about their rights and duties.
10. The consumer movement in India has led to the formation of various organisations locally known as …………..
Answer:
1. Consumer
2. COPRA
3. Rs 20 lakshs
4. 2005, Eight to Information
5. Right to seek Redressal,
6. 24th December,
7. Agmark
8. Hallmark,
9. Consumers,
10. Consumers, forums.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are consumer rights?
Answer:
The rights, which help the consumer in protecting himself from being exploited, are known as consumer rights.

Question 2.
Which type of goods do people use as consumers?
Answer:
People use final goods as consumers.

Question 3.
When do markets not work in a fair manner?
Answer:
Markets do not work in a fair manner when producers are few and powerful, whereas, consumers purchase in small amounts and are scattered.

Question 4.
Why did consumer movement arise?
Answer:
Consumer movement arose out of the dissatisfaction of the consumers.

Question 5.
When was the consumer movement started? ’
Answer:
The consumer movement was started in the 1960s.

Question 6.
What is consumer international?
Answer:
Consumer International is an organization, which covers small consumer groups or organizations. It protects the interests of consumers.

Question 7.
What is the alternative name of consumer protection Act 1986.
Answer:
COPRA.

Question 8.
in which year was Copra implemented?
Answer:
1986.

Question 9.
What does RTI stand for?
Answer:
Right to Information.

Question 10.
When was the Right to Information Act passed?
Answer:
The Right to Information Act was passed in October 2005.

Question 11.
What is the main function of consumer protection councils?
Answer:
Consumer protection councils guide consumers on how to file cases in consumer courts.

Question 12.
Mention any two ways in which consumers are exploited in the market.
Answer:
Sometimes, traders indulge in unfair trade practices.
(i) Such as, when shopkeepers weigh less than what they should.
(ii) Add charges that were not mentioned before.

Question 13.
in which two different forms do we participate in the market?
Answer:
We participate in the market as producers and consumers.

Question 14.
Which logo is used for standardization of agricultural products?
Answer:
The ‘Agrnark’ logo is used for standardization of agricultural goods.

Question 15.
Which logo would you like to see for purchasing electrical goods?
Answer:
We would like to see ‘ISI’ logo while purchasing electrical goods.

Question 16.
Which logo is used for the standardization of gold jewelry?
Answer:
The ‘Hallmark’ logo is used for the standardization of gold jewelry.

Question 17.
Which logo would you like to see while purchasing a tin of edible oil?
Answer:
‘Agmark’ logo is used for edible oil for standardization.

Question 18.
If any damage is done to a consumer by a trader, under which consumer right one can move to consumer court to get compensation.
Answer:
Under the ‘right to seek redressal’ one can move to a consumer court to get compensation.

Question 19.
Why was COPRA enacted in India?
Answer:
COPRA was enacted to give consumers the right to represent in the consumer court.

Question 20.
When do markets tend to be unfair?
Answer:
When producers are few and powerful, markets tend to be unfair.

Question 21.
What is the major role of consumer International?
Answer:
Consumer International is an umbrella body of 240 organizations engaged in consumer movement from over 115 countries. This is a tool for
nations to adopt measures to protect consumers.

Question 22.
Give any one example of a consumer’s ‘right to choose’.
Answer:
Any consumer who receives a service in whatever capacity, regardless of age, gender and nature of services has the right to choose.

Question 23.
If you want to extract information about the functions of any government department, which right would you exercise?
Answer:
Right to Information Act (RTI) ensures its citizens all the information about the functions of government departments.

Question 24.
What do you mean by consumer protection?
Answer:
Consumer protection means protection of consumers from exploitation.

Question 25.
Name the organization which provides redressal to consumer grievances.
Answer:
Consumer Forum.

Question 26.
Where should consumers go, to get Justice?
Answer:
Consumer Courts.

Question 27.
Write the names of the Consumer Courts established by Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Answer:

• District Level Courts,
• State Level Courts,
• National Level Courts.

Question 28.
When is National Consumer Day celebrated in India?
Answer:
National Consumer Day is celebrated on 24th of December of every year.

Question 29.
Why is National Consumer Day celebrated every year on 24th December in India?
Answer:
Because it was on this day, that the Indian parliament enacted the Consumer Protection Act, in 1986.

Question 30.
Give an example of a violation of the consumer’s right to choose.
Answer:
Suppose you want to buy toothpaste and the shopkeeper says, “I will give you the toothpaste only if you buy a tooth brush.” If you are not interested in buying the brush, your right to choice in denied in this situation.

Question 31.
How is the maximum retail price printed on packets beneficial for you?
Answer:
One can bargain with the seller to sell at less than the M.R.P.

Short Answer Type Questions-I

Question 1.
How do we participate in the market?
Answer:
We participate in the market, both, as producers and consumers.
(i) As producers of goods and services, we could be working in agriculture, industry or services sectors.
(iii) As consumers, we participate in the market when we purchase goods and services that we need.

Question 2.
What is consumer exploitation?
Answer:
A condition, in which, traders cheat the consumers by giving poor quality goods, or charge more than usual price for a commodity or service is called consumer exploitation.

Question 3.
Mention any two ways by which a shopkeeper exploits the customers.
Answer:
Following are the two ways by which a shopkeeper exploits the customers:
(i) By weighing less,
(ii) By charging more than maximum retail price (MRP).

Question 4.
Why did the consumer movement begin in India?
Answer:
Consumers get frustrated against the unethical and unfair practices adopted by the sellers. They are baffled as they are not able to tolerate the rampant food shortage, black marketing, adulteration of food, edible oil, ghee, butter, etc., created by the sellers. So, they started their movement, in the decade of 1960, in an organised form, called the consumer movement.

Question 5.
List the rights of the consumer.
Answer:
The rights of the consumers are as follows :

• Right to safety.
• Right to be informed.
• Right to be represented.
• Right to choose.
• Right to seek redressal.
• Right to consumer education.

Question 6.
Why do we find bad quality products in the market?
Answer:
We find bad quality products in the market because the supervision of safety rules is weak and the consumer movement is also not strong enough.

Question 7.
Which right of a consumer do you think is most important and why?
Answer:
I think, that the right to seek redressal is the most important. Consumers have the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and exploitation. If any damage is done to a consumer, he has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of damage.

Question 8.
What is the maximum limit of amount in cases that are filed at district, state and national level consumer courts?
Answer:
District level courts-upto ₹ 20 lakh
State level courts-₹20 Lakh to ₹1 crore
National level Courts-exceeding ₹1 crore

Question 9.
Give arguments to support the progress of the consumer movement in India?
Answer:

• Indian Parliament enacted the consumer protection Act in 1986.
• India has been observing 24th December, every year, as the National Consumers’
• India is one of the countries that have exclusive courts for the consumer redressal.
• Today, there are more than 700 consumer groups in our country.
• Consumer awareness in India is spreading slowly.

Short Answer Type Questions-II

Question 1.
How do we participate in the market as producers and consumers? Explain with three examples.
Answer:
We participate in the market as producers and consumer. As a producer of goods and services we could be working in different sector of economy like agriculture, industry or services. As a consumer we participate in the market when we purchase goods and services that we need. For example, if we cultivate crops or manufacture cars or run a school we act as producer but when we purchase food grain from market, or buy car or go to a doctor as patient then we act as consumer.

Question 2.
What is Consumer Protection Act, 1986? Describe the Salient features of this act.
Answer:
Consumer Protection Act 1986:
(i) Consumer Protection Act, 1986: The Indian Government enacted Consumer Protection Act in 1986. This Act or law settles the disputes of the consumers grievances in a simple, inexpensive and speedy manner. Under this Act, three-tier quasi-judicial machinery at the district, state and national level was set up, for redressal of consumer disputes. These are popularly known as consumer courts.

(ii) Public Distribution System: The Indian Government wanted to overcome some problems, like— hoarding, black-marketing and overcharging by the traders and manufac-
turers. Therefore, a new scheme was started by the government, which is known as Public Distribution System (PDS).

(iii) The Bureau of Indian Standard Act, 1986: The standardisation of products has been achieved through the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which was earlier known as Indian Standards Institution (ISI), which has the responsibility of laying down the standards for industrial and consumer goods on a scientific basis.

(iv) The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marketing) Act, 1937: This Act empowers the government to make rules about quality and grades of certain goods. It should be marked with grade designation marks, such as AGMARK etc.

Salient features of this act are following:

• It applies to all goods and services.
• It covers all the sectors viz.- public, private and co-operative.
• It gives various rights to the consumers, such as, Right to Choice, Right to Information, Right to Redressal, Right to Representation, Right to Safety and Right to Consumer Education.
• It established consumer forums at the central and state levels, to promote and protect the rights of the consumers.
• It also provides a separate three-tier quasi judicial machinery at the national, state and district levels.

Question 3.
Explain the ‘Right to Safety’ as the right of a consumer with a suitable example.
Answer:
While using many goods and services, consumers, have a right to be protected against the marketing of goods and delivery of services, that are dangerous for his/her life and property. Manufacturer needs to strictly follow the required safety rules and regulations. There are many goods and services, that we purchase from market, that require special attention towards safety. For example, pressure cookers have a safety valve which, if defective, can cause a serious injury. The manufacturers of the safety valve have to ensure high quality, consumers also need public or government action to see that this quality is maintained.

Question 4.
Explain the ‘Right to be informed’ as provided under the consumer protection Act. Mention the RTI Act, 2005 also.
Answer:
In order to save the customer from the exploitation of the manufacturers or shopkeepers, the customers have been provided the right to be informed. Under this right, the customer should be informed about the ingredients used, price, batch number, date of manufacture, expiry date and address of the manufacturer. At present, the Right to Information has been expanded to cover various services, provided by the government. In October, 2005, the Government of India enacted a law, popularly known as RTI Act, which ensures its citizens, every information about the functioning of Government Departments.

Question 5.
What are Consumer Protection Councils? Which services are provided for Consumer Protection by these councils ?
Answer:
The Consumer movement in India has led to the formation of various voluntary consumer organisations, which are locally known as Consumer Protection Councils or Consumer Forums.

The following services are provided by the Consumer Protection Councils:

• They instruct consumers on how to file cases in the consumer court.
• Usually, they also represent individual consumers in the consumer courts.
• These voluntary organizations also receive financial aid from the government for creating awareness among the people.
• These councils work to create awareness about the rights and duties of consumers.

Question 5.
What do you know about Consumer Courts? Write the importance of these courts.
Answer:
Consumer Courts:
The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 has the provision for setting up a three-tier quasi judicial system, which are known as consumer courts at district, state and national levels. These courts deal in consumer cases only.

Importance of Consumer Courts:

•  These courts look into the grievances and complaints of the consumer against the manufacturers and traders and provide the necessary relief and compensation.
• These courts are required to dispose off each complaint within three months.
• These courts deal in consumer cases only, so these reduce the burden on other courts, like, the Supreme Court, High Court and the District Court.

Question 6.
How is the consumer redressal process becoming cumbersome? Give reasons.
Answer:
The consumer redressal process is becoming cumbersome due to the following reasons:

• Consumers are required to engage lawyers, and these cases require time for filing and attending the court proceeding, etc. –
• It is difficult to gather evidence, where cash memos are not issued.
• On the issue of compensation to consumers injured by defective products, the existing laws are. not very clear.
• Laws that protect labourers are weak, especially in the unorganised sectors.

Question 7.
‘Consumer Movements can be effective only with the consumers’ active involvement. Give arguments to support this statement?
Answer:
Consumer movements can be effective only with the consumers’ active involvement. Arguments to support this statement are as follows :

• Consumer should realise their role and importance.
• This requires a voluntary effort and struggle, involving the participation of one and all.
• Consumers should have the knowledge of their rights while buying goods and services.
• They should have the knowledge of their duties.
• Consumers should be careful about quantity, use and expiry date of goods, while buying them.
• Consumers should ask for the bill and guarantee card, while buying goods from sellers.
• As far as possible, consumers should buy the goods which have ISI or Agmark or Hallmark.

Question 8.
Explain the right to choose provided under Consumer Protection Act.
Answer:
Consumers have the right to choose the goods or services among a variety of goods or services, under Consumer Protection Act, 1986. This will help consumers to decide the goods or services they want to buy, according to their choice. Suppose, a consumer wants to buy toothpaste and the shop owner says that he can sell the toothpaste only if the consumer buys a toothbrush also. If the consumer is not interested in buying the brush, his right to choice is denied. The seller cannot force a consumer to buy any particular goods other than the ones, which the consumer wants to buy.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the three-tier judicial machinery system under Consumer Protection Act,
Describe the three-tier Quasi-judicial machinery set-up for the redressal of consumer disputes.
OR
What is COPRA? Give a brief description of three-tier Quasi-judicial machinery established for redressal of consumer disputes.
OR
Explain the judicial machinery for redressal of consumer disputes.
Answer:
For consumer protection, the most important step taken by the Indian Government, was the enactment of a specific law, called the Consumer Protection Act, on 24th December 1986. The main aim of this act is the protection of consumer rights. This act is popularly known as COPRA. COPRA was enacted to protect the consumer from the malpractices prevailing in the markets. The Act has enabled us, as consumers, to have the right to represent ourselves in the consumers courts. Under the Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986, a three-tier quasi-judicial machinery system, at the national, state and district levels, was set up for redressal of consumer disputes, called consumer courts.

They are classified as given below:
img
(i) National Consumer Commission:
This is a consumer court at the national level. It is called National Consumer Commission. This commission deals with cases, involving claims exceeding ?1 crore. It consists of one President and at least four other members, one of whom should be a woman.

(ii) State Consumer Commission:
This is a consumer court at the state level. It is called State Consumer Commission. It deals with cases, involving claims between ?20 lakhs and crore. It consists of a President and not less then two other members, one of whom should be a woman. ,

(iii) District Consumer Forum:
This is Consumer Court at the District Level. It is called District Consumer Forum. These courts deals with the cases, involving claims upto ?20 lakhs. It consists of a President and two other members, one of whom should be a woman.

These three-tier courts (National, State and District Level Courts), look into the grievances and complaints of the consumer, against the manufacturer or sellers.

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Multiple Choice Questions

Money and Credit Class 10 Important Questions Question 1.
Which of the following is not a feature of a Multinational Company?
(a) It owns or controls production in more than one nation
(b) It sets up factories where it is close to the markets
(c) It organises production in complex ways
(d) It employs labour only from its own country.
Answer:
(d) It employs labour only from its own country.

Chapter 3 Money and Credit HBSE 10th Class Question 2.
Investment made by Multinational Companies is called :
(a) Foreign Investment
(b) Investment
(c) Trade barriers
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Foreign Investment

Money and Credit Important Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
When did Ford Motors come to India?
(a) 1900
(b) 1922
(c) 1990
(d) 1995.
Answer:
(d) 1995.

Question 4.
In which year, the Indian government decided to remove barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment?
(a) 1995
(b) 1990
(c) 2003
(d) 1991.
Answer:
(d) 1991.

Question 5.
What is the main feature of new economic policy?
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 6.
Name the organisation which lays emphasis on liberalisation of foreign frade and foreign investment in India.
(a) W.T.O.
(b) UNDP
(c) UNESCO
(d) UNICEF
Answer:
(a) W.T.O.

Question 7.
Globalisation does not involve which one of the following ?
(a) Movement of people between countries for jobs, education etc.
(b) Rapid integration between countries
(c) Increased taxes on imports
(d) More goods and services moving between countries.
Answer:
(c) Increased taxes on imports

Question 8.
What are SEZs ?
(a) Special Economic Zones
(b) Special oort Zones
(c) Special Excise Zones
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Special Economic Zones

Question 9.
Which of these is an Indian MNC ?
(a) Infosys
(b) Ranbaxy
(c) Tata Motors
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
Foreign trade gives more number of choices for –
(a) Buyers
(b) Producers
(c) Sellers
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Buyers

Fill in the blanks

1. …………. is the integration between countries through foreign trade and foreign investment by multinational companies.
2. ………….. is a trade between different countries of the world.
3. Removing barriers or restrictions set earlier by the government on foreign trade is known as ……………
4. ……………. is the initiative of developed countries to liberalise international trade.
5. Governments of respective countries can play a major role in achieving ……………
6. WTO deals with regulation of trade between participating …………
7. Government establishes ………….. to attract MNCs for investment.
8. …………. has played on important role in globalisation.
Answer:
1. Globalisation
2. Foreigh trade
3. Liberalisation
4. World Trade Organisation
5. Fair globalisation
6. Countries
7. SEZ
8. Information Technology.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you meant by globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation is the process of interconnection between countries of the world.

Question 2.
Mention any three factors responsible for Globalisation.
Answer:
(i) Growth of Multinational Companies.
(ii) Growth of Technology.
(iii) Development of telecommunication and means of transportation.

Question 3.
Why do MNCs set-up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and other resources?
Answer:
To minimise cost of production and maximise profit earnings, MNCs set-up their offices and factories in regions where they get cheap labour and other resources.

Question 4.
How foreign investment is differentiated from investment?
Answer:
The money that is used to set up industries, buy assets, merge with companies based in foreign land is called foreign investment, while investment is simply the buying of assets, land, building, etc.

Question 5.
Define the term ‘liberalisation’.
Answer:
Removing barriers of restriction set earlier by the government is known as liberalisation.

Question 6.
Analyse the contribution of communication technology in globalisation.
Answer:
Communication technology has provided us with fast means of communication through which information can be sent, received or processed at a very rapid pace. This has linked the world and facilitated globalisation.

Question 7.
Who are playing a major role in the globalisation process?
Answer:
Multinational Companies are playing a major role in the globalisation process.

Question 8.
Why is tax on imports called a trade barrier?
Answer:
It is called a barrier because it sets up various restrictions on trade.

Question 9.
For what purpose do governments use trade barriers?
Answer:
Government can use trade barriers to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kinds of goods, and how much of each, should come into the country.

Question 10.
What is meant by trade barrier? Give one example?
Answer:
Trade barriers are restrictions imposed on import and export of goods. An example is import duty.

Question 11.
When was World Trade Organisation established?
Answer:
World Trade Organisation was established on 1 January, 1995.

Question 12.
Where is the head office of WTO?
Answer:
The head office of WTO is in Geneva, Switzerland.

Question 13.
Write full form of the following:
(i) MNC
(ii) WTO
Answer:
(i) MNC-Multinational Corporation.
(ii) WTO-World Trade Organisation.

Question 14.
For which companies has globalisation created new opportunities?
Answer:
Globalisation has created new opportunities, for companies providing services, particularly those involving IT.

Question 15.
What are SEZs?
Answer:
SEZs mean Special Economic Zones. They are created to attract foreign investment.

Question 16.
Which steps have been taken to attract foreign investment in India? Name any two.
Answer:
(i) Special Economic Zones are being set up.
(ii) Flexibility in the labour laws.

Question 17.
Name any two large Indian Companies that emerged as multinational companies.
Answer:
(i) Tata Motors
(ii) Infosys.

Question 18.
Why is fair globalisation necessary?
Answer:
Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the benefits of globalisation are shared better.

Short Answer Type Questions-I

Question 1.
What do you mean by Multinational Corporation ? Write the main characteristics of MNCs. .
OR
Where do MNCs set up their production units?
Answer:
Meaning of Multinational Corporation (MNC):
A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.

Characteristics of MNCs:
This is done, so that the cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits.

MNCs set up their production units:

• Where there is skilled and unskilled labour available at low costs.
• Where the availability of other factors of production is assured.
• Where it is close to the market.
• Where government policies are as per the interests of MNCs.

Question 2.
MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies. Is it beneficial for local companies?
Answer:
MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies. The benefit to the local company of such joint production is two-fold:
(i) MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like, buying new machines for faster production.
(ii) MNCs might bring with them the latest technology for production.

Question 4.
What is the most common route for MNC investments?
Answer:
Sometimes, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies in the host countries, but the most common route for MNC investments is to buy up local companies and then to expand production. MNCs with huge wealth can quite easily do so. In fact, many of the top MNCs have wealth, exceeding the entire budgets of the developing country governments.

Question 5.
Why are MNCs spreading across the borders? Give two reasons.
Answer:
Multinational Corporation: Large companies, which operate in many countries of the world, are called multinational companies/corporations. These companies are spreading across the borders because of the following reasons:
(i) These multinational companies are set up for better profits. They spread across the borders to get more and more profits.
(ii) They spread acorss the border to get cheap skilled and unskilled labour and other resources. This is done with a view that in such areas, the cost of production would be low and their chances of profit would be greater.

Question 6.
What are Special Economic Zones? Why have they been set up?
Answer:
Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are those industrial areas, which have been specially established to attract foreign companies to invest in India. These have world-class facilities, like- electricity, water, roads, storage, transport, recreational and educational facilities. Moreover, in such special economic zones, those companies who set up their production units, are provided relaxation in taxes, for an initial period of five years.

Short Answer Type Questions-II

Question 1.
Give a brief description of the role of multinational corporations in Indian economy.
Answer:
The role of multinational corporations in Indian economy can be described as given below :
1. There has been a great increment in foreign direct investment in India, because of the multinational corporations.
2. Due to the establishment of several factories in India, the country has undergone rapid industrial development.
3. Multinational corporations used modern techniques in production, therefore new technologies are coming in the country.
4. Multinational corporations are establishing units in India, in which, people are getting employment.
5. Things of good qualities are being made available to consumers by multinational corporations, consequently there are many choices of goods before consumers.

Question 2.
What is foreign trade? What are its prominent effects of it?
Answer:
Foreign Trade: The process of buying and selling goods and services between two or more than two countries is known as foreign trade.

Effects of Foreign Trade:
The prominent effects of foreign trade are as follows:
1. Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets, i.e. markets of their own countries.
2. Producers can sell their products, not only in markets located within the country, but also can compete in markets located in other countries of the world.
3. Import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods, beyond what is domestically produced.
4. Prices of similar goods in the two markets tend to become equal.
5. The producers of two distant countries can compete with each other.

Question 3.
What is World Trade Organisation? Is this organisation working properly?
Answer:
World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an organisation, whose aim is to liberalise international trade. WTO establishes rules regarding international trade and observes that these rules are obeyed. It was established on 1st January 1995. Though WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all, in practice, it is seen that the developed countries have unfairly retained trade barriers. On the other hand, WTO rules have forced developing countries to remove trade barriers.

Question 4.
Which factors have enabled globalisation in India?
Answer:
The factors which have enabled globalisation in India are as follows :
(i) Transportation Technology: One of the major factors, that has stimulated the globalisation process, is the improvement in transportation technology. There are aircraft that cover the distance, in a short time, between one country to another. Moreover, the cost of air transport has been reduced.

(ii) Information Technology: It has played an important role in spreading out the production of services. For instance, a news magazine, published for London readers, is being designed and printed in Delhi.

(iii) Information and Communication Technology: Information and Communication technology has got a boost, due to the invention of computers and the internet etc.

Question 5.
Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India since 1991; Justify the statement.
Answer:
In 1991, the Government of India liberalised its policy and felt that Indian producers must compete with producers around the world. The government had an opinion that trade competition would improve the performance of the local producers within the country since they will be forced to improve their quality. Another reason was the economic crises in India in 1990-91 and support of WTO and IMF which led the government to remove trade barriers. Thus, Indian Government removed barriers to a large extent on foreign trade and foreign investment.

Question 6.
How have our markets been transformed in recent years. Explain with current examples, or Assess any three advantages of globalisation.
Answer:
After the advent of globalisation, many changes have occurred in the Indian markets. The various transformation in the Indian market in recent years are:

• There is the availability of a wide range of goods and services.
• Products are of better quality.
• Good quality products are available at low costs.
• We can easily avail the latest products with advanced technology, e.g. digital cameras, mobile phones, etc.

These products are affordable as well as accessible.

Question 7.
How does government attract foreign investment? Explain different ways.
Answer:
Government attracts foreign investment in the followings ways:

• Special Economic Zones have been set up to have world-class facilities such as cheap electricity, roads, transport, storage, etc.
• The companies setting their units in SEZs are exempted from paying tax for initial period of five years which increases their profit.
• Labour laws are made flexible in SEZs. This has attracted foreign investment.

Question 8.
Explain the functions and importance of World Trade Organisation.
Answer:
Following are the functions and importance of World Trade Organisation—

• World Trade Organisation (WTO) deals with regulation of trade between participating countries.
• It provides a forum for negotiation and for settling disputes.
• It is an organisation that intends to supervise and liberalise.
• It oversees the implementation, administration and operations of the covered agreements.

Question 9.
Why had the Indian Government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments after independence? Analyse the reason.
Answer:
Indian Government put barriers to foreign trade after independence because of the following reasons-

• To protect the domestic producers within the country from foreign competition in the form of imports.
• To encourage more production of goods so that more industries can be started.
• During 1950s and 1960s, Indian industries were just coming up, they were not prepared to face challenges from foreign countries.

Question 10.
” Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all and also ensure that benefits of globalisation are shared better.” Support the statement.
OR
How can the government of India play a major role to make globalisation more fair? Explain with examples.
Answer:
The statement points to the fact that the government can work for the cause of fair globalisation through the following ways-

• By framing policies that protect the interests of not only the rich and powerful but also the weaker sections of society.
• By supporting small producers so they can compete with large manufacturers.
• By ensuring that labour laws are properly implemented and workers get their rights.
• By using trade and investment barriers and negotiating for fairer rules at the WTO.

Question 11.
How are local companies benefitted by collaborating with multinational com¬panies? Explain with examples. (CBSE 20131
Answer:
The following examples show that local companies benefitted by collaborating with multinational companies.

• Local companies get additional investments, to buy new machines for faster production.
• Local companies get the latest technology for production.
• By more production, local companies earn greater profits.

Question 12.
How can government play a major role in making globalisation fair?
OR
How can the government of India play in major role to make globalisation more fair? Explain with examples. (CBSE 2019;
Answer:
Government can play a major role in making fair globalisation in the following ways :

• Government policies must protect the interests, not only of the rich and the powerful, but also of other people in the country.
• Government can ensure that labour laws are properly implemented.
• Government can ensure whether the workers get their rights or not.
• Government can support small producers to improve their performance, till the time they become strong enough to compete.
• Government can use trade and investment barriers, if necessary.
• Government can negotiate at the WTO for fairer rules.
• Government can align with other developing countries with similar interests, to fight against the domination of developed countries in the WTO.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in what ways has competition affected workers, Indian exporters and foreign MNCs in the garment industry.
Answer:
Competition has affected workers, Indian exporters and foreign MNCs in the following ways :
Workers:

• Their jobs are no longer secure. They now work on a temporary basis.
• They have to put in very long working hours.
• Wages are low.

Indian exporters:

• They get orders from MNCs at cheaper rates.
• They try hard to cut their costs.
• They employ workers only on a temporary basis.

Foreign MNCs:

• They are able to find cheaper raw materials and other inputs in order to maximise their profits.
• Competition among garment exporters has allowed these MNCs to make large profits.

Question 2.
How has foreign trade been integrating markets of different countries? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Since historic times, foreign trade has been the main channel connecting countries, e.g. silk route connects India and South Asia to markets both in the East and West. Foreign trade creates an opportunity for producers to reach beyond the domestic markets, i.e. markets of their own countries. Choice of goods in the markets rises. Prices of similar goods in the two markets tend to become equal. Producers in the two countries closely compete against each other, even though they are separated by thousands of miles.

With many MNCs in the market, the consumer has a wide range of products coming from different nations to choose from. Hence, it interlinks various markets across the countries. For example, Volkswagen, German automobile company, is the biggest German automaker in the world. It came to India in 2007 and had recorded sales of 32,627 vehicles in the year 2010.

Question 3.
“Globalisation has been advantageous to consumers as well as to producers.” Support the statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
Globalisation has benefitted the producers and the consumers in the following ways:
(i) Globalisation has led to a rapid increase in industrial competition. As result, producers are competing over each other to provide better and cheaper services to the consumers. This has also resulted in a reduction in the prices.

(ii) With the initiation of globalisation, producers now have relatively free access to international markets. Also, they can now avail more easily of the credit facilities forwarded in terms of capital and technology. This is illustrated by the example of the electronics goods and garments industry.

(iii) Consumers have more choice of goods and services as compared to earlier times specially in modern digital technological equipment like cell phones, cameras etc.

Question 4.
What are the various ways in which MNCs set up or control production in other countries.
OR
Explain by giving examples that MNCs are spreading their production in different ways.
Answer:
The way in which MNCs control or spread their production are:
By Buying Local Companies: Large MNCs buy companies that are operating locally. By doing this, they get a good customer base and the local company gets latest technology. For example, Cargill Foods (MNC) merged with Parakh Foods (local).

By Joint Ventures:
MNCs set-up production units jointly with any company that may be operating in a country. By doing this, MNCs not only increase their production but also get a vast market. For example, Ford Motors set up automobile plant in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra. By placing orders with small producers : MNCs place orders for their products with small producers in developing countries where the resources are cheap. Then the MNCs sell those products under their own brand. Ex. garments, foodwear, jeans, footballs, etc.

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 3 Money and Credit Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Multiple Choice Questions

Important Questions Of Money And Credit HBSE 10th Class Question 1.
Which among the following is an essential feature of barter system?
(a) It acts as a measure and store of value
(b) It is based on double coincidence of wants
(c) A person holding money can easily exchange any commodity
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) It is based on double coincidence of wants

Money And Credit Important Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 2.
Before the introduction of coins, which two of the following objects were used in India as money :
(a) Grain and Cattle
(b) Copper and Gold
(c) Gold and Grain
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Grain and Cattle

Chapter 3 Money and Credit HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
What is the most important function of the banks ?
(a) Accept deposits and extend loans
(b) Give loans to government
(c) Open as many bank accounts as possible
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Accept deposits and extend loans

Question 4.
Currency is a ………… form of money.
(a) Modern
(b) Oldest
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Modern

Question 5.
Which among the following issues currency notes on behalf of the central Government?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Commercial Bank of India
(d) Union Bank of India.
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India

Question 6.
In India, which type of currency is widely accepted as a medium of exchange?
(a) Dollars ($)
(b) Pounds (£)
(c) Rupee (?)
(d) Euro (€)
Answer:
(c) Rupee (?)

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not a feature of money ?
(a) A store of value
(b) A unit of account
(c) Medium of exchange
(d) Lack of divisibility.
Answer:
(d) Lack of divisibility.

Question 8.
Which one of the following is a major reason that prevents the poor from getting loans from the banks ?
(a) Not affordable due to high rate of interest
(b) Absence of mediators
(c) Absence of collateral security
(d) Lack of capital.
Answer:
(c) Absence of collateral security

Question 9.
What is SHG ?
(a) Self Help Groups
(b) Self Handicraft Groups
(c) Social Help Groups
(d) Society Help Groups.
Answer:
(a) Self Help Groups

Question 10.
Professor Muhammd Yunus is the founder of which one of the following banks?
(a) Commercial Bank of Pakistan
(b) Co-operative Bank of India
(c) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh

Fill in In the blanks

1. ………….. is used for several transactions.
2. Before the use of money, people followed ………….. of exchange.
3. Money is a accepted as a common …………..
4. In India ………….. can only issue currency notes on behalf of the government of India.
5. Deposit with banks are called ………….
6. The ………….. comprises bank and cooperative societies.
7. The ………….. are organisations of the rural poor people specially women.
8. …………… were used in ancient times as money.
Answer:
l. Money
2.barter system
3. medium of exchange
4. Reserve Bank of India
5. Demand Deposits
6. formal sector
7. Self Help groups
8. Gold seals.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define money.
Answer:
Money means that legal thing, which is used as a medium of exchange.

Question 2.
What do you mean by credit or loan?
Answer:
Credit refers to an agreement, in which, the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services, in return for the promise of future payment.

Question 3.
What is barter system?
OR
What is the meaning of Barter system.
Answer:
Barter system is a system, by which, one commodity is exchanged with the other, without the use of money.

Question 4.
What is the essential feature of barter system?
Answer:
Double co-incidence of wants is the essential feature of barter system.

Question 5.
What do you mean by double co-incidence of wants?
Answer:
It means, both parties, the buyer and the seller, have to agree to sell and buy, each other’s commodities.

Question 6.
Why money is called a medium of exchange?
Answer:
Money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process, so it is called a medium of exchange.

Question 7.
Why modern currency is accepted as a medium of exchange?
Answer:
Modem currency is accepted as a medium of exchange because it is authorised by the government of the country.

Question 8.
Name the Central Bank of India.
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India.

Question 9.
Who issues currency notes in India?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes in India.

Question 10.
What are the two major sources of formal loans for rural households?
Answer:
Sources of formal loans are cooperative society, cooperative banks.

Question 11.
What is a cheque?
Answer:
A cheque is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued.

Question 12.
Who issues the currency notes on behalf of the Central Government of India?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the central government.

Question 13.
Why do banks keep a small proportion of the deposits as cash with themselves?
Answer:
Banks in India hold about 15 per cent of their deposits as cash to pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money from the bank on any given day.

Question 14.
Which is the main sector of credit for rich urban households in India.
Answer:
Formal sector is the main sector of credit for rich urban households in India.

Question 15.
What is Indian law regarding issue of currency?
Answer:
As per Indian law, no other individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency.

Question 16.
What is demand deposit ?
Answer:
The deposit in the tank accounts, that can be withdrawn on demand by customers, is known as demand deposit.

Question 17.
Which other facility is offered by demand deposit?
Answer:
Demand deposit offers payment made by cheques.

Question 18.
Write two functions of banks.
Answer:
(i) To deposit money,
(ii) To give loAnswer:

Question 19.
What is the main source of income of banks?
Answer:
The difference between, what is charged from borrowers and what is paid to depositors, is the main source of income of banks.

Question 20.
What do you mean by cheque?
OR
What is a bank cheque?
Answer:
A cheque is a paper, ordering the bank to pay a specific amount, from the person’s account to a person, in whose name the cheque has been issued.

Question 21.
How does money act as a medium of exchange?
Answer:
A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service that he or she might want. Money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process.

Question 22.
What are the two forms of modem currency?
Answer:
Paper notes and coins are the two forms of modern currency.

Question 23.
Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending?
Answer:
If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the collateral to obtain payment. Therefore, lenders ask for collateral.

Question 24.
Which is the major reason that prevents the poor from getting bank loans?
Answer:
In the absence cif collateral, poor people are unable to get bank loAnswer:

Question 25.
What do you mean by double coincidence of wants?
Answer:
If both parties agree to buy and sell each other’s commodities respectively then it is known as double concidence of wants.

Question 26.
What are the modern forms of money?
Answer:
Paper notes and coins are the modern forms of money.

Question 27.
What is the reason for accepting paper notes as a medium of exchange in India.
Answer:
The reason for accepting paper notes as medium of exchange in India is that paper notes are authorised by the Government of India.

Question 28.
What do you mean by the term collateral?
Answer:
It is an asset that the borrower owns and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.

Question 29.
What do you mean by an account payee cheque?
Answer:
An account payee cheque indicates that the payment will be made directly in the account of the person or company whose name is mentioned
on the cheque.

Question 30.
What do you mean by debt-trap?
Answer:
Dept-trap is a situation in which a person takes a loan but is unable to repay his loan. To repay his loan either he has to take a fresh loan or sell some portion of his land.

Question 31.
Name the sources of credit available in India.
Answer:
Following are the sources of credit available in India:
(i) Formal sources of credit,
(ii) Informal sources of credit.

Question 32.
Name the formal sources of credit.
Answer:
The formal sources of credit are:
(i) Banks,
(ii) Co-operative societies.

Question 33.
Name the informal sources of credit.
OR
Give two examples of informal sources of credit.
Answer:
The informal sources of credit are:

• Moneylenders
• Traders
• Landowners,
• Relatives
• Friends etc.

Question 34.
Write the full form of SHG.
Answer:
SHG-Self Help Group.

Question 35.
How does SHGs help, the borrowers?
Answer:
The SHGs help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral.

Question 36.
In which year was the Grameen Bank of Bangladesh established?
Answer:
Grameen Bank of Bangladesh was established in 1970.

Question 37.
Name the founder of Grameen Bank of Bangladesh.
Answer:
Professor Muhammad Yunus was the founder of Grameen Bank of Bangladesh.

Question 38.
What do you mean by terms of credit?
Answer:
Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment, together, comprise of, what is known as the terms of credit.

Short Answer Type Questions-I

Question 1.
Why transactions are made in money?
Answer:
A person, holding money, can easily exchange it for any commodity or service, that he or she might want. Thus, everyone prefers to receive payments in money and then exchange the money for things that they want. Take the case of a farmer who wants to sell wheat and buy domestic commodities. The farmer will first exchange wheat, that he has grown, for money, and then, exchange the money for domestic commodities.

Question 2.
Why currency is accepted as a medium of exchange?
Answer:
Currency is accepted as a medium of exchange because it is authorised by the government of the country. It cannot be refused in settling transactions. For example, no individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees. Hence, in India, the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange.

Question 3.
What is demand deposit? Why is it considered as money?
Answer:
The deposits in the bank accounts which can be withdrawn on demand, by customers, are called demand deposits. Demand deposit is considered as money due to following reasons:

• It can be used as a medium of exchange.
• It is acceptable to all.
• It helps in making payment without cash, by using cheque.

Question 4.
Write some benefits of deposits with banks.
Answer:
People deposit their extra cash with the banks, by opening a bank account in their name. The benefits of deposit with banks are as follows :

• Banks pay an amount as interest on the deposits.
• Banks accept the deposits. In this way, people’s money is safe with the banks.
• People also have the provision to withdraw the money when they require.
• Payment can be made by cheque in place of cash.
  For this, banks issue a cheque book to their account holders.

Question 5.
What is a cheque? Why do banks issue cheque?
Answer:
A cheque is a paper, instructing the bank to pay a specific amount, from the person’s account, to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued. The facility of cheques against demand deposits makes it possible to directly settle payments, without the use of cash. For payment through cheque, the payer, who has an account with the bank, makes a cheque for a specific amount.

Question 6.
Discuss the term ‘moneylenders’.
Answer:
The professional moneylenders and the agriculturist moneylenders are the most important and popular source of rural credit in India. They conduct moneylending as a side business. They are popular in rural areas because of their easier procedure of lending and their willingness to lend for unproductive purposes. These moneylenders charge a very high interest rate. They cheat the innocent and illiterate farmers.

Question 7.
Discuss Self-Help Groups.
Answer:
Self-help groups have emerged recently, to help formal credit system. These groups promote savings by asking for a minimum contribution from each member of the group. Credit is sanctioned to the needy members of the group. Credit is sanctioned to be repaid in small instalments. These groups help the rural people in improving their economic condition.

Short Answer Type Questions-II

Question 1.
“Money eliminates the need for double co-incidence of wants.” Explain this statement.
Answer:
Double co-incidence of wants is an essential feature of barter system. In a barter system, goods are exchanged without the use of money. What a person desires to sell, is exactly, what the other person wishes to buy. Imagine how much more difficult it would be, if a shoe manufacturer had to directly exchange shoes for wheat, without the use of money. He would have to look for a wheat growing farmer, who wants to buy the shoes in exchange of wheat. That is, both parties have to agree to sell and buy each others’ commodities.

Money, by providing the crucial intermediate step, eliminates the need for double co-incidence of wants. It is no longer necessary for the shoe-maker to look for a farmer who will buy his shoes, and at the same time, sell him wheat. All he has to do, is to find a buyer for his shoes. Once he has exchanged his shoes for money, he can purchase wheat or any other commodity, from the market.

Question 2.
How is money used as a medium of exchange? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Following example explains the use of money as a medium of exchange

• In day-to-day transactions, goods are being bought and sold with the use of money.
• The transactions are made in money as a person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or services.
• Use of money has made it easier to exchange services such as the service of a doctor, teacher etc.

Question 3.
Explain the two functions of money.
Answer:
The two functions of money are as follows:
(i) Medium of Exchange-Money works as a medium of exchange. It is used in the sale and purchase of goods and services. We can get commodities in exchange of money. The payments are made through money.

(ii) Store of Value-Money serves as a store of value, such as, wealth, in liquid form. At present, people want to have some currency notes or coins in their pocket, home, bank accounts etc., to use them anytime for the purchase of anything. It is possible only with the help of money. We can store value in the form of generalised purchasing power and can use the money in any way we like.

Question 4.
“Banks mediate between those who have surplus funds and those who are in need of these funds.” Clarify this statement.
Answer:
The mechanism is as follows:

• Banks accept deposits from people who have surplus money.
• Banks pay an amount as interest on the deposits.
• Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. This is kept as a provision to pay the depositors, who might come to withdraw money from the bank on any given day.
• Since, on any particular day, only some of its depositors may come to withdraw cash, the bank is able to manage with this provisional cash.
• Banks use the major portion of the deposits to extend loAnswer: Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of the people.

Question 5.
Credit can plays a negative role. Justify the statement.
OR
“Credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
Credit play a negative role when it results in formation of a circle or a trap known as debt-trap. Debt-trap is a situation in which a person after taking a loan is not able to pay back the loan and takes a fresh loan.

It is more common in rural areas because:
(i) A borrower tries to repay a loan by selling the agricultural produce, but this may not be enough to repay the entire loan.
(ii) Rural borrower normally depends on informal sources of credit who charge a high rate of interest. This repayment of larger amounts may sometimes be larger than their income. Thus, it can be concluded that credit can play a negative role also leading to debt trap and even more poverty than before.

Question 6.
“Loans from banks always help to raise people’s earning capacity.” Justify this statement using suitable examples.
OR
“Credit can play a positive role.” Justify the statement with examples.
Answer:
Loans from banks always help to raise people’s earning capacity. The examples to justify this are—

• People can purchase machinery and equipment with a loan to start productive activities in manufacturing.
• With a loan, people can purchase raw materials for processing into finished products, this increases their earning capacity.
• With the loans people can get training or learn some kind of skill which helps them in the future to increase their earning.

Question 7.
Why should the bank and co-operative societies provide more loan facilities to the rural households in India? ‘
Answer:
Bank and Co-operative Societies should provide more loan facilities to the rural households in India because of the following reasons:
(i) India is an agricultural country, so the rural households are in need of a special attention. So, the bank and co-operative societies should fulfil the commitment of helping the needy people of the rural areas, as in their welfare makes the nation stronger.

(ii) Most of the urban people rely upon the rural people for their food requirements and so, the welfare of the rural households is extremely important. So, the hank and co¬operative societies should provide more facilities to the rural households, in the matter of advancing loan.

(iii) Most of the people in rural areas are illiterate and so, they can be easily cheated by moneylenders. Only the banks and co-operative societies can help to save them from such exploitation.

(iv) Only the bank and co-operative societies can provide loans to the rural households at low rates, which can easily save them from the clutches of the local moneylenders.

Question 8.
Credit has its own unique role for development : Justify the statement with argument.
Answer:
Credit has its own unique role for development because of the following reasons:

• Cheap and affordable credit can be used to set up small-scale or cottage industries.
• Farmers can buy agricultural inputs with credit and thereby increase their crop production.
• Credit is also needed by the manufacturing sector to buy raw materials, machines, pay wages to labours etc.

Question 9.
Why is modem currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own? Find out the reason.
Answer:
The modern currency is not made up of precious metal such as gold, silver or copper and like grain and cattle, it is not of everyday use. Thus, the modern currency is without any use of its own. But still it is accepted as a medium of exchange as it is authorised by government of the country. It has certainly made transactions easier and is easy to carry also. In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government and guarantees the value attached to paper notes and coins. Thus, modem currency is accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own.

Question 10.
“Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the nation.” Examine the statement.
Answer:
The deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors because of the following reasons :
(i) Safety of the surplus money.
(ii) Earn interest on the surplus money.
(iii) Can make payment easily through cheques.

Benefits of Bank deposits to the nation are:
(i) Availability of cheap loans as large part of these deposits are given as loans
(ii) Boost the industry and agriculture by providing cheap loans
From the above points, it can be concluded that deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the nation.

Question 11.
What are the reasons for formal credit not being available to the rural poor?
Answer:
The main reasons for formal credit not being available to the rural poor, due to which they are dependent on informal credit sources are:
(i) Lack of documents of employment, earnings, etc. to convince banks that they will be able to repay the loan.
(ii) They usually lack any property which may act as collateral or security against loan default.
(iii) Rural people are also not aware of the credit facilities provided by formal sources also the availability of formal sources is less in rural areas.

Question 12.
Name two formal and two informal sources of credit in India. State any three advantages of formal sources of credit. (CBSL 20 Hi1
Answer:
Two formal sources of credit are bank and cooperatives and two informal sources of credit are moneylenders and traders. The advantages of formal sources of credit are:

• It provides loans at a fixed rate and terms.
• It gives loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries and small borrowers etc.
• Cost of borrowing is less and hence promote borrowing and more economic growth.
• There is no exploitation as in the case with the informal sectors.

Question 13.
Explain any two features each, of formal sector loans and infdrmal sector loAnswer:
Answer:
Two features each, of formal sector loans and informal sector loans are as follows :

Formal Sector Loans:

• Formal sector loans are such loans, which are taken either from the bank or the co-operatives.
• In the case of formal sector loans, the rate of interest is very low as compared to informal sector.
• In the formal sector of loans, there is no exploitation. ”

Informal Sector Loans:

• Informal Sector loans are those, which are taken from moneylenders, traders, relatives and friends.
• In the case of informal sector of loans, the rate of interest is quite high : 36% to 60% per annum.
• In the informal sector, there is exploitation by moneylenders and traders, etc.

Question 14.
Discuss the uses of Self-Help Groups.
Answer:
Following are the uses of Self-Help Groups:

• Self-Help Groups help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral.
• Self-Help Groups provide timely loans for a variety of purposes and at a reasonable interest rate.
• Self-Help Groups help in organising rural poor people.
• Self-Help Groups help women to become financially self-reliant.
• The meetings of self-help groups provide a platform to discuss and act on various social issues, such as- health, nutrition, domestic violence etc.

Question 15.
How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Suggest any five measures.
Answer:
The measures to make formal sector loan beneficial for poor farmers and workers are:

• The formal sector like banks and cooperatives should lend more to poor people and workers, particularly in rural areas.
• The formal sector should provide cheap and affordable credit to the poor people so that repayment is easy.
• Formal sector should work out other ways of arranging collateral from the poor people.
• By providing linkage between self-help groups and banks, formal sector of credit can be increased.
• There should be more number of cooperatives and banks in rural areas and people should be made aware of their presence.

Lon Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Barter system has a number of problems”. What are these? Explain.
Answer:
There are many problems in the barter system. Some of them are as follows :
(i) Problem of Double co-incidence-The most serious problem of barter system is double co-incidence. In barter system, a person having a surplus of one commodity should be able to find another person who wants that commodity, as well as, has some commodity required by him to offer in exchange. This is a very difficult task. If wants do not match exactly, no exchange will take place.

(ii) Problem in measurement of Value-The second problem of barter system is measurement of value. Every commodity has its own value. It is difficult to measure the value of commodities in barter system.

(iii) Lack of Divisibility-The other problem of barter system is lack of divisibility. There are many goods, which cannot be cut into pieces to make exchange, such as-goat, cow, bed, chair etc. If they are cut into small pieces, they will lose their identity and utility. So, these commodities cannot be exchanged in pieces for different things.

(iv) Problem of Store of Value-Barter system does not provide any method of storage of purchasing power.

Question 2.
Who issues currency notes in India? Discuss the functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:
In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes, on behalf of the central government. The functions of Commercial Banks are as follows :
(i) Accept Deposits-The most significant and traditional function of commercial banks is to accept deposits. Banks accept surplus money of people, under savings account, current account and fixed deposits. They play the role of custodian of money for public.

(ii) Provide Loans-There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. Banks fulfil their needs of money by providing them loAnswer: Loans may be granted in the form of cash credit, ordinary loans, overdraft, discounting of bills etc. So, the second important function of commercial bank is to provide loans to people.

(iii) Credit Creation-Money deposited by people in bank, is given to other people, in the form of loans, to satisfy their need of money. People, who take loan from banks, do not spend whole of the money. They deposit balance money in their bank account. The process continues, in this way, money multiplies and banks make a system of credit creation.

(iv) Transfer of Funds-Commercial banks transfer funds of a customer’s account through cheques, drafts, credit card, cash order, etc.

(v) Agency Functions-In modern times, commercial banks also act as an agent of the customer. They accept subscription for shares from various shareholders, on behalf of their respective company.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Bank? Describe the loan activities of Banks.
Or
What do the banks do with the deposits which they accept from the public? Explain.
Answer:
Bank: An institution, which accepts deposits from people and lets them withdraw their deposits on their demands, is known as bank. Loan activities of Banks : Loan activities of banks are the following –

(i) Bank accepts surplus money of people, under savings account, current account and fixed deposits. Bank keeps only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. For instance, banks in India, these days, hold about 15 per cent of their deposits, as cash. This is kept as provision to pay the depositors, who might come to withdraw money from the Bank on any given day. Since, on any particular day, only some of its money depositors come to withdraw cash, the bank is able to manage with this provisional cash.

(ii) Banks use the major portion of the deposits to extend loAnswer: There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. Banks make use of the people’s deposits to meet the loan requirements of the people.

(iii) Banks lend to people, who demand money as loan, and charge interest from them.

(iv) Thus, banks mediate between those, who have surplus funds (the depositors), and those, who are in need of these funds (the borrowers).

(v) Banks charges a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits. The difference between what is charged from borrowers and what is paid to depositors, is their main source of income. After meeting all the expenses from this income, the remaining money is profit or loss for a bank.

Question 4.
‘Banks play an important role in an economy. How?
Answer:
The banks play an important role in the economy of the country. It can be justified from the following reasons :

• The banks keep the money of the people in safe custody, otherwise people can become an easy prey of robbers or thieves.
• They give interest on the money deposited by the people. Thus, they increase the income of the depositors.
• They mediate between those people, who have surplus money and those, who are in need of this money.
• They provide loans on low interest to a large number of people.
• They promote agriculture, by providing cheap loans to the farmers, who can increase their production.
• Banks boost the industrial sector of a country, by providing cheap loans to the industrialists.
• Banks employ a large number of people, and, as such, they solve the employment problem also.
• Banks are the backbone of the country’s trade. They also provide loans for traders to increase their trade.

Question 5.
How do the bank credits (loan) play a positive role in production? Give a suitable example.
Answer:
A large number of transactions in our day-to-day activities involve credit, in some form or the other. Loan helps the peasants to grow their crops. It helps the industrialists to establish industrial units, to complete production on time and to meet the ongoing expenses of production. This increases their income. Loans play a significant role in the development of country. At present, banks, in comparison with other sources, provide loans on cheap rates for their consumers.

Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves, while the large proportion of rest of the money is provided as loans for various economic activities, because there is a great demand for loan. Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of the people. People borrow money from banks on low rates of interest and invest it into production and acquire profit. For example-Sohan has a shoe factory. Sohan has received an order from a large trader in town for five thousand pairs of shoes, to be delivered in a month’s time.

To complete the production on time, Sohan has to hire a few more labourers for stitching and pasting work. He has to purchase the raw materials. So, he needs more money to meet his expenses. He takes loan from bank, after the completion of formalities. After a month, he completes his order. This is how, the credit helps him to meet the ongoing expenses of production and to make the delivery on time. Thus, Sohan gets his income increased by procuring a bank loan. In this way, banks pla3′ a positive role in production.

Question 6.
Write two situations of credit and mention essential terms of credit.
Answer:
Credit refers to an agreement, in which, the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services, in return for the promise of future payment.

Credit has two situations, which are following:
(i) Filfet Situation: In one situation,, credit helps to increase earnings and therefore, the person is better off than before.
(ii) Second Situation: In another situation, because of the crop failure, credit pushes the person into a debt trap, from which, recovery is very uncertain. Instead of increase in income, situation of the borrower becomes worse. Therefore, it depends on the risks in the situation and whether there is some support in case of loss.

Essential terms of Credit:The main terms of credit are as given below:
(i) First of all, a borrower will have to present a certificate that how much money he should be lended, that can be repayed by him.
(ii) The borrower will have to furnish the details of his income, if he/she is in service.
(iii) Bank requires collateral, which includes land titles, deposits with banks, livestock, etc.
(iv) Bank can require a guaranter, who can repay the borrowed money, in c5fee the borrower is unable to repay.

Question 7.
Describe the four main sources of credit for the rural households.
Answer:
Four main sources of credit for the rural households are as given ahead :
(i) Moneylenders:
The professional moneylenders and the agriculturist moneylenders are the most important and popular source of rural credit in India. They conduct moneylending as a side business. They are popular in rural areas because of their easier procedure of lending and their willingness to lend for unproductive purposes. These moneylenders charge a very high interest rate. They cheat the innocent and illiterate farmers.

(ii) Commercial Bank:
Almost twenty-five percent of the total loan, taken by rural households, is from commercial banks, in India. These banks provide loan at a lower rate of interest, in comparison to that of informal moneylenders. But, poor and small farmers cannot take loan easily, as the banks need collateral, which they do not possess.

(iii) Co-operative Societies:
Co-operative Societies are another significant sources of taking loan by rural households.
The twenty-seven percent of total deposit money is acquired from Co-operative Societies. In comparison to the informal sources, these have lower interest rates.

(iv) Self-Help Groups:
Self-help groups have emerged recently, to help formal credit system. These groups promote savings by asking for a minimum contribution from each member of the group. Credit is sanctioned to the needy members of the group. Credit is sanctioned to be repaid in small instalments. These groups help the rural people in improving their economic condition.

Question 8.
Mention any two drawbacks of informal sector loAnswer: How are the formal sector loans different in this conte?
Answer:
Informal sector lenders those, which are taken from money lenders, traders, employers, relatives and friends.
The main drawbacks of informal sources of loans are as follows:
(i) High Interest Rate-The rate of interest of informal sources of loans is high because of higher risk involvement. That’s why, the loan becomes very expensive and borrower might be unable to pay off the loan.

(ii) Exploitation of Borrowers-Sometimes, borrowers get exploited by moneylenders or landlords. Borrowers are given threats and intimidation, in case, they default in the repayment of loAnswer: They are forced to work without wages for their lenders.

(iii) No Legal Resources-There is no legal resources in informal sources of loans There is no written agreement between the borrower and the lender. This also leads to exploitation, for which, no legal help can be availed.

The formal sector credit is better in the following ways:

• The formal sector credits include the sources of loan, which are registered by the government.
• These sources work under the supervision of the Reserve Bank of India.
• The objective of providing loan by these formal sources, is the welfare of society, alongwith earning profit.
• These sources lend money at a low rate of interest.
• These formal sources do not put any unfair conditions before the borrowers.
• Borrowers are not exploited by the formal sources.

Question 9.
Explain the role of Self-Help Groups in the rural economy.
Answer:
Self-Help Groups consist of certain members who pool their savings and constitute a fund which is further used in making finance and advances available to other members. A typical Self-Help Group has 15 to 20 members. The members pool their savings and after some time, it becomes a large amount which is used to give loans to the needy ones at a very nominal rate of interest. This helps to reduce the functioning of informal sectors of credit.
(i) They help borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral.
(ii) They can get timely loans for variety of purposes and at reasonable interest rates. They are building blocks of the economic organisation of the rural poor.

Question 10.
Describe the significance of the Reserve Bank of India.
Answer:
The significance of the Reserve Bank of India is discussed below:

• It issues currency notes on behalf of the central government.
• It supervises the functioning of formal source of loAnswer: RBI monitors the banks and ensures that they maintain minimum reserves as per the guidelines of central bank.
• It also sees that banks give loans not just for profit making to traders but also to small borrowers, small cultivators etc.
• Periodically, banks have to submit information to RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.
• When a commercial bank fails to get financial accommodation from anywhere, it approaches the central bank as the last resort. Central Bank advances loan to such banks against approved securities. It ensures that the banking system of the country does not suffer from any setback and money market remains stable.
• It acts as a banker to the government and is the cr odian of the foreign exchange reserves of the economy.

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Multiple Choice Questions

Important Questions Sectors Of Indian Economy HBSE 10th Class Question 1.
When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the sector.
(a) Secondary
(b) Tertiary
(c) Primary
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Primary

Economics Chapter 2 Class 10 Important Questions HBSE Question 2.
Which one of the following occupations is not associated with primary sector?
(a) Basket weaver
(b) Gardener
(c) Beekeeper
(d) Priest.
Answer:
(d) Priest.

Ch 2 Sectors Of Indian Economy HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
Which one of the following is an activity of the secondary sector?
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Fishing
(c) Beekeeping
(d) Lumbering.
Answer:
(a) Manufacturing

Question 4.
Which one of the following economic activities is not in the tertiary sector?
(a) Banking
(b) Gardener
(c) Teaching
(d) Working in a call centre.
Answer:
(b) Gardener

Question 5.
WTiich one of the following is an example of tertiary sector?
(a) Gardening
(b) Farming
(c) Banking
(d) Mining.
Answer:
(c) Banking

Question 6.
Communication is an activity of-
(a) Tertiary sector
(b) Primary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Tertiary sector

Question 7.
The other.name of tertiary sector is –
(a) Industrial sector
(b) Governmental sector
(c) Service sector
(d) Primary sector.
Answer:
(c) Service sector

Question 8.
The task of collection of data in all the three sectors of the economy is done by which of the following organisations-
(a) NSSO
(b) UNDP
(c) WTO
(d) WHO.
Answer:
(a) NSSO

Question 9.
Which of the following is the most appopriate meaning of underemployment?
(a) Workers are not paid for their work
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing
(c) Workers are working in a lazy manner
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing

Question 10.
When more people are engaged in a work than required-what does it indicate?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Overemployment
(c) Disguised Unemployment
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Disguised Unemployment

Question 11.
When was MNREGA implemented ?
(a) 2005
(b) 2002
(c) 2011
(d) 2013
Answer:
(a) 2005

Question 12.
Which section has the provision of paid
(a) Unorganised sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Primary sector
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Organised sector

Question 13.
The sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
(a) Primary
(b) Unorganised
(c) Organised
(d) Secondary.
Answer:
(b) Unorganised

Question 14.
Which one of the following is not an example of the Public Sector ?
(a) Railways
(b) Reliance Industries limited
(c) Post offices
(d) Army.
Answer:
(b) Reliance Industries limited

Question 15.
The motive of Public sector enterprises is
(a) Entertainment
(b) Profit making
(c) Social welfare and security
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Social welfare and security

Fill in the Blanks

1. The activities which are undertaken with the objective to earn money are called …………
2. …………….. of the economy involves conversion of natural resources into primary products.
3. Secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through …………
4. Primary sector was most important sector in initial stages of …………..
5. Secondary sector is also called …………. sector.
6. National Institution for Transforming India was formed on ……………
7. …………… covers those enterprises or places of work where workers are given regular employment.
8. Protection and support to workers in the ………….. sector is necessary for economic and social development.
9. ……………. enterprises are owned by government.
10. ………….. targets the poor people of rural areas who suffer from poverty.
Answer:
1. Economic activities
2. Primary sector
3. manufacturing
4. development,
5. industrial
6. 1st January 2015
7. Organised sector
8. unorganized
9. Public sector
10. MNREGA.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention some economic activities which come under the primary sector.
Answer:
Agriculture, animal husbandry, dairy, fishing, mining, forestry, poultry etc.

Question 2.
Why is the primary sector called the agriculture-related sector?
Answer:
The primary sector is called agriculture-related sector because most of the natural products have been obtained from agriculture, dairy, fishing, and forestry.

Question 3.
What do you mean by secondary sector activities?
Answer:
The secondary sector covers all those activities, in which, natural products are changed into other forms, through ways of manufacturing.

Question 4.
Why is the secondary sector called the industrial sector?
Answer:
The secondary sector is called the industrial sector because this sector is associated with different kinds of industries.

Question 5.
Why is the tertiary sector called the service sector?
Answer:
The tertiary sector is called the service sector because it generates services, rather than goods.

Question 6.
Name any four tertiary sector activities.
Answer:

• Transport
• Communication
• Banking
• Trade.

Question 7.
Services such as transport, banking and insurance come under which sector?
Answer:
Tertiary Sector.

Question 8.
Production of a commodity mostly from natural process in an activity of which sector?
Answer:
Primary Sector.

Question 9.
Name the sector in which the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services?
Answer:
Public Sector.

Question 10.
Name the sector which continued to be the largest employer even in the year 2000?
Answer:
The primary sector mtinued to be the largest employer even in the year 2000.

Question 11.
ATM is an exami of which sector?
Answer:
ATM is an example of Tertiary sector.

Question 12.
What do you mean by GDP?
Answer:
The sum of production in the three sectors is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country, during a particular year.

Question 13.
How is GDP calculated?
Answer:
GDP is the sum total of gross value added of all the firms in the economy. If there are N firms in the economy, each assigned with a serial number from 1 to N, them GDP = Sum total of the gross value added of all the firms from 1 to N in the economy.

Question 14.
Which goods and services are calculated in total production?
Answer:
The value of final goods and services are calculated in total production.

Question 15.
What are intermediate goods?
Answer:
The goods, which are used in producing final goods and services, are called intermediate goods.

Question 16.
What are final goods?
Answer:
Those goods, which are used for final consumption, or in capital formation, are called final goods.

Question 17.
Which sector has become the most important sector from the point of view of total production and employment?
Answer:
The secondary sector.

Question 18.
Which services develop with the development of agriculture and related sectors?
Answer:
The services, like transportation, trade and storage develop with the development of agriculture and related sectors.

Question 19.
What is disguised unemployment?
Answer:
It is a type of hidden unemployment, where people seem to be working, but they do not contribute to the actual production.

Question 20.
Suggest any one way to create employment opportunities in rural areas?
Answer:
Employment can be generated by 1. identifying, promoting and locating industries and services in semi-rural areas. 2. Bank loan facility for agri sector is cheaper.

Question 21.
Classify economy on the basis of the nature of the activity.
Answer:
The economy is classified on the basis of economic activities into three sectors namely- the primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector.

Question 22.
What is meant by the secondary sector?
Answer:
The sector that includes activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through manufacturing is called the secondary sector.

Question 23.
Name the sector where seasonal and disguised unemployment is most prevalent.
Answer:
Primary sector.

Question 24.
What is meant by primary sector?
Answer:
When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources. It is an activity of the primary sector.

Question 25.
Which type of work will be given preference under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005?
Answer:
The types of work, that would help to increase production in the future, from land, will be given preference under Mahatma Gandhi Nation, rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.

Question 26.
What are the two sectors on the basis of ownership on assets?
Answer:
(i) Public sector
(ii) Private sector.

Question 27.
What is public sector?
Answer:
The sector, in which, government owns most of the assets, is called public sector.

Question 28.
Give two examples of public sector.
Answer:
(i) LIC
(ii) BSNL.

Question 29.
Give any two examples of private sector.
Answer:
(i) TISCO
(ii) RIL.

Question 30.
What is the main purpose of private sector?
Answer:
The main purpose of private sector is to gain profit.

Question 31.
What type of workers need protection in rural and urban areas?
Answer:
The casual wokers need protection in rural and urban areas.

Question 32.
Whose responsibility is to provide health and education facilities?
Answer:
It is the government’s responsibility to provide health and education facilities.

Short Answer Type Questions-I

Question 1.
What do you know about secondary sector activities ? Explain with few examples.
Answer:
The secondary sector covers all activities, in which natural products are changed into other forms, through ways of manufacturing, that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary activity. The product is not produced by nature, but has to be made, and therefore, some process of manufacturing is essential, and this could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For example—weaving cloth by using cotton fibre, making sugar or gur by using sugar cane etc.

Question 2.
Give two points of distinction between final goods and intermediate goods.
Answer:
The two points of distinction between final goods and intermediate goods are as follows:
Final Goods:
1. Final goods are those goods, which reach to the consumers at last.
2. Example-Biscuit, bread, chocolate, almirah, television etc.

Intermediate Goods:
1. Intermediate goods are used in producing final goods or services.
2. Example-Flour, cotton, wheat, steel etc.

Question 3.
In India, the development process has led to an increase in the share of the tertiary sector in GDP. Do you agree with this statement? Explain it.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement. The development process has led to an increase in the share of the tertiary sector in GDP, because the development has increased in the tertiary sector activities, and the share in GDP of this sector has also increased due to an increase in employment in the service sector.

Question 4.
Compare the rate of growth of the tertiary sector with other sectors in terms of GDP and employment.
Answer:
Over the forty years between 1973 and 2013, while production in all the three sectors—Primary, Secondary and Tertiary has increased, but, it has increased the most in the tertiary sector. Therefore, the tertiary sector has become the largest producing sector in India, replacing the primary sector. It generates most of employment opportunities and increases the GDP, more, in comparison to other sectors.

Short Answer Type Questions-II

Question 1.
Give the classification of the economic sector.
Answer:
The classification of the economic sector is as follows:
(I) On the basis of nature of activity on the basis of nature of the activity, the economic sector can be classified as given below:
(i) Primary sector or agriculture and related sector,
(ii) Secondary sector or industrial sector,
(iii) Tertiary sector or service sector.

(II) On the basis of people employed on the basis of people employed, the economic activities can be classified as follows :
(i) Organised sector,
(ii) Unorganised sector.

(III) On the basis of ownership on the basis of ownership, the economic sector can be classified as given below :
(i) Public sector,
(ii) Private sector.

Question 2.
Why are most of the people in India employed in the primary sector? Explain.
Answer:
Most of the people in India are employed in the primary sector because of the following reasons:

• Indian economy is a rural economy, and as such, more than 60 per cent of the people still depended upon the primary sector, mainly, on agriculture.
• A majority of the population of India resides in the villages, where their main occupation is agriculture and animal husbandry, which forms a major part of the primary sector.
• In India, the primary sector covers various types of economic activities, like- agriculture, mining, forestry, fishing, lumbering and animal husbandry, so a large number of people are still engaged in the primary sector.
• Other economic sectors are the secondary and the tertiary sectors in India. These have still failed to provide more employment opportunities to a majority of the Indian people, so the people are forced to engage themselves in the primary sector.

Question 3.
What is the importance of service sector?
Answer:
The importance of service sector is as follows:

• Service sector increases the sale of goods and services through transportation, communication, warehousing etc.
• Transportation service helps in the transfer of goods from one area to another.
• The service sector provides cheap and efficient service, that is beneficial to consumer.
• Service sector provides quick and economical services to the consumers.
• Service sector removes time and place barriers.

Question 4.
Explain reasons which are responsible for increasing importance of tertiary sector in India?
Answer:
(i) In any country, several services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post and telegraph services, police station, courts, village administration offices, transport, banks etc. are required. These can be considered as basic services in a developing country.

(ii) The development of agriculture and industries leads to the development of services such as, transport, trade, storage and the like. Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors, more would be the demand of such services.

(iii) Rise of income level leads to rise in more services because people like eating out, tourism, shopping, private schools and hospitals etc. in big cities.

(iv) Over the past decades or so, certain new services such as those based on information and communication technology have become important and essential. The production of these service has been rising rapidly. It is the reason for their expansion.

Question 5.
Explain how public sector contributes to the economic development of the Nation?
Answer:
In the public sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is under the government. The government spends huge amounts of money in providing various services to the public at reasonable costs. The Government, thus, contributes towards the economic development of the nation by development of infrastructure, i.e:
(1) Construction of roads, national highways, flyovers, metro rails, railway lines, irrigation through dams etc.
(2) The Government provides impetus to industrial growth by supplying electricity at the affordable rates. ‘
(3) By running schools and providing good quality of education, the government is trying to remove illiteracy and take the nation a head.

Question 6.
State any three features of the National Rural Guarantee Act, 2005.
OR
Why is NREGA (MGNREGA) is also called ‘the right to work’? Explain.
Answer:
Every state or region in India has the potential for increasing the income and employment in that area. Recognising this, the central Govt, in India has passed an act called the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.

Main features of the NREGA 2005 are:
(1) To implement the Right to Work in 200 districts of India.
(2) To guarantee 100 days of employment in a year by the Government. In case the Government fails to be so, it offers an unemployment allowance.
(3) To give preference to the type of work that will help increase the production from

Question 7.
Is public sector compulsory for an economy? Discuss.
Answer:
Yes, public sector is the most compulsory sector for an economy. The reasons for this, are as follows-

• Only the government can invest in necessary public projects, like, roads, bridges, ports, electricity, irrigation facility, dams etc.
• The government provides basic facilities to people, at reasonable costs.
• The government encourages the private sector. The private sector cannot continue its production or business without the encouragement of government. So, the government supports some activities, to develop private sector.
• The government buys wheat and rice from the farmers at fair price, stores these in its godowns and sells to the consumers at lower price, through ration shops.
• The government also has some primary responsibilities, like-providing health services, better education etc.

Question 8.
State some measures that you feel will help to protect the labourers in the unorganised sector.
Answer:
Following are the measures that will help to protect the labourers in the unorganised sector:

• Government should make rules and regulations and they should be followed strictly.
• The government should support small-scale industries in getting raw material and distribution of production.
• The government should make a law, regarding minimum wages of employees in unorganised sector, and the law should be followed strictly.
• The workers should work in such an unorganised sector, where salary is at par along with the good standard of living, and where job is secured.

Question 9.
Why did not a shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment although there has been a change in the share of the three sector in GDP?
Answer:
A remarkable fact about India is that, while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken in employment.
(1) A similar shift out of primary sector did not happen in case of employment because not enough jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
(2) Even though industrial output of the production of goods went up by eight times during the period, employment in the industry went up by only 2-5 times.
(3) While production in the service sector rose by 11 times, employment in the service sector rose less than three times. As a result, more than half of the workers in the country were working in the primary sector, mainly in agriculture, producing only a quarter of GDP.

Question 10.
“The Problem of underemployment is not confined only to Agriculture.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
The problem of underemployment is not confined to agriculture only. It can also happen in other sectors too :
For example: There are thousands of casual workers in the service sector in urban areas who search for daily employment. They are employed as painters, plumbers, repair persons and other odd jobbers. Many of them don’t find jobs everyday.
(1) Similarly, we see other people of service sector on ‘the street pushing a cart or selling something where they may spend the whole day but earn very little. They are doing such work only due to the lack of better employment opportunities. Social Science

(2) The unorganised sector includes small and scattered units outside governmental control. Employment is not .secure. People can be asked to leave without any reason. When there is less work, such as during off season, some people may be asked to leave.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is service sector growing so fast? Give reasons.
OR
Why is the tertiary sector becoming more important in India ? Explain.
Answer:
In the past forty years between 1973 to 2013, the production in all three sectors has increased, but it has increased the most in the tertiary sector, or say, the service sector. Consequently, the tertiary sector has replaced the primary sector and emerged as the largest producing sector in India.

The reasons for this are as given below:
(1) Basic Services-In any country, several basic services are required for ‘smooth running of economic activities. These several basic services are hospitals, educational institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices, municipal corporations, defense, transport, banks, insurance companies etc. In a developing country, the government has to take responsibility for the provision of these services.

(2) Development of means of transport and communication-The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of transport, trade, storage, communication etc. More the development of the primary and the secondary sectors, more would be the demand for such services.

(3) Latest Services-Over the past decade, the latest services based on information and communication technology have become most important and necessary. For example-ATM booth, call centre, internet cafe, software companies etc. The production of these services is increasing rapidly.

(4) More Income, More Services-The per capita income of our country is increasing. When income level rises, people start demanding many more services, like-shopping, tourism, eating outlets, professional training, private schools, private hospitals etc.

Question 2.
What is GDP? How do we count the various goods and services for calculating GDP? Explain with suitable examples.
Answer:
GDP means Gross Domestic Product. It is the total value of final goods and services produced in a particular year within a country. It includes contribution of all sectors of economy.

We calculate the GDP in the following ways:
(i) The final value of goods and services in the three sectors primary, secondary and tertiary, are calculated and then, added up.

(ii) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year, provides the total production of the sector for that year, and the sum of the production in three sectors-primary, secondary and tertiary.

(iii) All the goods and services provided and sold are not required to be calculated. It makes sense only to include final goods and services. For example, suppose, a farmer sells wheat to a flour mill owner for ₹10 per kg. The flour mill owner grinds the wheat and sells the flour to a biscuit company for ₹12 per kg. The biscuit company uses flour and other ingredients, like-salt, sugar and oil etc. to make the packets of biscuits. The biscuit company sells biscuits in the market to the consumer, for ₹15 per packet. Now, biscuits are the final goods, i.e. goods that reach the consumer.

Thus, in this example, intermediate goods are wheat and flour, which are used for making biscuits. Intermediate products should not be counted in the figure of GDP. Biscuits are the final products, prepared by using flour and other ingredients. Only the final products are reaching the actual consumers. The value of the intermediate products is already counted in the final products and if this is again counted, it will lead to double counting, causing an error in the estimation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Question 3.
Why is organised sector preferred by the employees? Explain.
OR
What is an organised sector? Elaborate the working conditions of the organised sector in India.
Answer:
Organised sector induces all enterprises which are either registered or under the purvey of any of the relevant government rule, like Factory Act. People enjoy working in the organised sector, as there is a proper and systematic way to get the work done from the employees.

Following are the reasons for giving priority to organised sector by the employees:

• Workers enjoy security of employment. They cannot be removed from employment without proper intimation.
• The workers work only for a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have to be paid overtime wages by the employer.
• Many benefits are given to the workers like leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, gratuity, medical benefits, etc.
• Under the laws, the management of the enterprise has to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.

Question 4.
How can employment be increased in both rural and urban areas? Explain.
OR
What steps should be taken to create more employment. Explain.
Answer:
Unemployment is a major problem in India and it is prevalent in both rural and urban areas. Underemployment is also visible as disguised unemployment in agricultural and in urban areas. These issues need to be addressed properly.

The steps that can be taken to increase employment are:
(i) Education and health sector can create massive employment in urban as well as rural areas. Vocational training also creates massive employment so these sectors should be encouraged.

(ii) Allied activities like horticulture, pisciculture should be promoted which will create employment in rural areas. Promotion of small-scale industries will also create employment.

(iii) Social safety programmes like NREGA, NRLM (National Rural Livelihood Mission), etc generate massive employment in rural and urban areas respectively so they should be encouraged.

(iv) Cheap credit for setting up new businesses can create employment in both rural and urban areas.

Question 5.
Describe the historical changes that have taken place in the sectors of the economy in the developed countries.
OR
“Primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of development.” Evaluate the statement.
Answer: The history of developed countries reveals a general pattern of development in their economic structure. First, primary sectors predominantly contributed to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and provided most of the employment. Then when agricultural activities increased, there.was need for industrialisation and gradually, industrial sectors dominated the economy.

Much of the workers Shifted to industrial sector, but agricultural productivity was not hampered as industrial sector produced farm equipment, fertilisers etc that increased productivity. Aftei*ta hundred years, service sector increased and most of the workers shifted to service sector. Now, service sector contributes the maximum share to economy. The service sector has grown in terms of total production and employment generation without disturbing the production and productivity of other two sectors. So, it is seen that the economic structure had been shifting sectors in developed countries. Similarly, almost all the developing countries are following the same path but this may be at a different pace.

Question 6.
Why is the tertiary sector preferred by the employees? Explain.
Answer:
The tertiary sector is becoming more important in india because of following reasons:

• The tertiary sector provides basic services such as public transportation, medical care, banking, electricity, post office, etc. under the control of the government.
• The tertiary sector offers huge employment opportunities for skilled as well as unskilled employees.
• People enjoy security of employment and if they work more, they get overtime allowances.
• Paid leaves, payment during holidays, medical benefits, secure working environment, etc. are other benefits offered in this sector today.

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 1 Development Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Economic Chapter 1 Challenges to Development

Multiple Choice Questions

Development Important Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 1.
Which of the following is a developmental goal for the landless rural labourers?
(a) To educate their children
(b) To get house and land
(c) More days of work and better wages
(d) To shift to the towns.
Answer:
(c) More days of work and better wages

HBSE 10th Class Important Questions Economics Chapter 1 Development Question 2.
Which of the following is a developmental goal common to all?
(a) Freedom
(b) Regular work
(c) Security and respect
(d) High level of income and better quality of life.
Answer:
(d) High level of income and better quality of life.

Chapter 1 Development Important Questions Economics HBSE Question 3.
Which of the following things money cannot buy?
(a) Tree
(b) Flowers
(c) Pollution free enviroment
(d) Books.
Answer:
(c) Pollution free enviroment

Question 4.
What is the most common method of measuring the economic development of a country?
(a) Security
(b) Income
(c) Freedom
(d) Equal Treatment.
Answer:
(b) Income

Question 5.
Which of the following is people’s goals in addition to higher income?
(a) Peace and security
(b) Freedom
(c) Equal treatment
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 6.
Among the following criteria, which one is the basis to measure the development of a country, according to the World Bank?
(a) Per capita income
(b) Net attendance ratio
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Life expectancy.
Answer:
(a) Per capita income

Question 7.
Per Capita Income is also known as :
(a) Average Income
(b) Gross Income
(c) National Income
(d) Total Income.
Answer:
(a) Average Incom

Question 8.
If there are five persons in a family and their total income is Rs 30,000, What would be the average income of each person?
(a) Rs 6,000
(b) Rs 3,000
(c) Rs 8,000
(d) Rs 10,000
Answer:
(a) Rs 6,000

Question 9.
Which of the following countries has the largest size of illiterate population in the world?
(a) India
(b) England
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) USA.
Answer:
(a) India

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a component of HDI?
(a) Literacy rate
(b) Per capita income
(c) Poverty rate
(d) Life expectancy.
Answer:
(c) Poverty rate

Question 11.
Who published the Human Development Report?
(a) BMI
(b) HDI
(c) UNDP
(d) World Bank.
Answer:
(c) UNDP

Question 12.
Which South Asian country has the first rank in the HDI?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Nepal.
Answer:
(a) Sri Lanka

Question 13.
Which kind of resources are replenished by nature?
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-renewable resources
(c) Mineral resources
(d) Stock resources.
Answer:
(a) Renewable resources

Question 14.
Which area of the world has the largest crude oil reserves?
(a) The Middle East
(b) Russia
(c) China
(d) India.
Answer:
(a) The Middle East

Fill In the blanks

1. Different persons have different …………..
2. ………….. is considered as the most important component of development as it can buy material goods and services.
3. …………… is the income of all the residents of the country over a period of time.
4. …………… gives a better comparison.
5 are provided by the government for the betterment of the community.
6. Human Development Report is Published by …………..
7. India occupies …………. rank in HDI in 2020 .
8. A good way to measure the quality of life in countries across the world is by comparing their ………….
9. Economic development by maintaining the natural resources for present atid future use is known as …………
10. BMI stands for ………………
Answer:
1. developmental goals
2. income
3. national income
4. per capita income
5. public facilities
6. UNDP
7. 131th
8. human development index
9. sustainable development,
10. Body Mass Index.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is development?
Answer:
Development is a process in which per capita income increases and inequality, poverty and illiteracy reduces, i.e. the economic life and living standard of people improves.

Question 2.
Write any two developmental goals or aspirations of landless rural labourers.
Answer:
(i) More days of work
(ii) Better wages.

Question 3.
What do people want generally?
Answer:
Generally, people want things that are most important for them, i.e. those which can fulfil their aspirations or desires.

Question 4.
What are the economic goals desired by rural people?
Answer:

• Regular work
• Better wages
• Decent price for their crops or other things that they produce.

Question 5.
What are the social goals desired by people?
Answer:

• Equal treatment
• Freedom
• Security
• Respect of others.

Question 6.
Name the things on which the quality of our life depends.
Answer:
(i) Material things
(ii) Non-material things.

Question 7.
What is meant by national development?
Answer:
The economic, social, and political development of any country is called national 9development.

Question 8.
What is National Income?
Answer:
The monetary value of all final goods and services, produced in a defmite period, in an economy, is known as National Income.

Question 9.
Define the term per capita income.
Answer:
The total income of the country divided by its total population is called per capita income.

Question 10.
Mention the formula for the calculation of per capita income.
Answer:

Question 11.
Which indicator is considered to be the most important measure of development?
Answer:
Per capita income, productivity, living standard, and HDI are the major indicators to measure development.

Question 12.
Why do you consider average income as an important criterion of development?
Answer:
Average income tells about the earnings of every person.

Question 13.
Give the meaning of the average income of the country.
Answer:
The average income of a country means per capita income. It is calculated by dividing the total income of a country by its population.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Infant mortality rate (IMR) indicates the number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year.

Question 15.
Why is the Infant Mortality Rate low in Kerala?
Answer:
The people of Kerala have better health and educational facilities, that’s why the Infant Mortality Rate is low in Kerala.

Question 16.
Write any one indication of Human Development Index.
Answer:
Level of education.

Question 17.
Which criterion is used in World Development Report for c1assifring countries?
Answer:
World Bank uses the income criterion per capita income to compare countries.

Question 18.
What term is used for the report published by UNDP which compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income?
Answer:
Human Development Report (HDR).

Question 19.
How many countries are included in HDI ranking?
Answer:
There were 189 countries for which HDI was calculated in Human Development Report, 2018.

Question 20.
What does life expectancy at birth denote?
Answer:
Life expectancy at birth denotes low death rate at birth.

Question 21.
What does gross enrolment ratio for three levels mean?
Answer:
Gross enrolment ratio for three levels means enrolment ratio for primary school, secondary school and higher education beyond secondary school.

Question 22.
Define the term Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Answer:
Net attendance ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.

Question 23.
Define the term Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Answer:
Gross Domestic Product is the 1mai value of goods and services produced within geographical boundaries of a country dirin a specified period of time, quarterly or yearly.

Question 24.
What is the main criterion for comparing the development of different countries?
Answer:

• Per capita income.
• Average literacy level.
• Health status of its people.

Question 25.
Write the full form of B.M.I.
Answer:
The full form of BM.! is Body Mass Index.

Question 26.
How can you calculate the Body Mass Index (BMI) ?
Answer:
Body Mass Index can be calculated by dividing the total weight of a person by the square of his height.

Question 27.
Write the full form of U.N.D.P.
Answer:
U.N.D.P. stands for United Nations Development Programme.

Question 28.
What is H.D.I?
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 29.
Which organization publishes the “Human Development Report”?
Answer:
UNDP publishes the “Human Development Report”.

Short Answer Type Questions-I

Question 1.
Why is it that the income by itself is not a completely adequate indication of goods and services that citizens are able to use? Give an example.
Answer:
Income by itself is not a completely adequate indication of material goods and services that citizens are able to use. For example, normally money cannot buy a pollution-free environment or ensure that, we get unadulterated medìcine.

Question 2.
Why is greater income considered as one of the important economic goals?
Answer:
Greater income is considered to be one of the important economic goals because more income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. Income is considered as one of the most important attributes for comparing the development of countries.

Question 3.
Mention any two indications which are used to measure the development of a country.
Answer:
(i) National income – It refers to the monetary value of goods and services produced in a definite period in an economy.
(ii) Per capita income – Total income of the country divided by its total population. It is also known as Average income.

Question 4.
How can a developmental goal for one he destructive for the other? Mention one suitable example.
Answer:
Developmental goals can be acquired at the cost of degradation, and depletion of natural resources. For example, groundwater is a renewable resource but in case of overuse, the level can deplete. Non-renewable resources (coal, petroleum, etc.) are those which will exhaust after a few years of use.

Question 5.
What is per capita income? Mention any two limitations of per capita as an indicator of development.
Answer:
Per capita income is calculated as the total income of a country divided by its total population. Understanding Economic DeveIopment3 Money cannot buy all the goods aoci services that are needed to live well. So, income by itself is not. a completely adequate indicator of the overall well-being of people.

Question 6.
Mention any six things people look for as important aspects of their lives apart from income.
Answer:
Apart from income people look for pollution-. free atmosphere to ensure good health, protection from infectious disease, lowr mortality rate, promotion of literacy job security, good working conditions etc that are essential for a good standard of life.

Question 7.
Give the meaning of Human Development.
Answer:
Human Development-It is a process, which fulfills the wants and desires of people. so that they can live a motivates and active lifi. It touches upon social, economic, political and cultural aspects of human life, with special emphasis on reduction of poverty and narrowing down inequality and unemployment.

Question 8.
What do you know about UNDP?
Answer:
UNDP means United Nations Development Programme. UNDP publishes the Human Development Report, This report compares countries on the basis of their education level, health status and per capita income.

Question 9.
Write any two points of importance of the Human Development Index.
Answer:
(i) It indicates th ‘evel of development of a country.
(ii) It tells about impo aflt factors of economic development, like-life expectancy, level of educational achievement and actual per capita income.

Question 10.
Mention few examples of environmental degradation that you may have observed around you.
Answer:

• Industrial waste and other pollutants washed into river basins like Ganga and Yamuna.
• Deforestation in Terai, Sunderbans and other forest regions.
• Emission of smoke and carbon fuel gas from factories and motor vehicles in urban areas (towns and cities).

Question 11.
In what respect is the criteria used by the UNDP for measuring development different from that used by the World Bank?
Answer:
Human Development Report published by UNI)P compares countries on the basis of the educational level of people, their health status and per capita income, while the World Bank uses per capita income only.

Question 12.
Suggest any three ways to maintain Body Mass Index (BMI).
Answer:
Body Mass Index (BMI) is an indicator of an individual’s relative body fat. It is calculated by measuring a person’s height and weight and using the formula, body weight in kgs/hieght in metre squared (m)².

It can be maintained by the following ways:

• Through aerobic exercise
• Through physical activities
• Through team games and individual sports.

Question 13.
Define the following terms:
(i) Per Capita Income
(ii) Net Attendance Ratio
OR
Define the term Per Capita Income.
Answer:
(i) The per capita income is the total income of the country divided by its total population. It is also called average income.
(ii) Net Attendance Ratio is the percentage of children of age group 14-15 attending school of the total number of children in the same age-group.

Short Answer Type Questions-II

Question 1.
Write some characteristics of development.
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of development:

• Different persons may have different developmental goals.
• What may be the meaning of development for one, may not be the meaning of development for the other. Instead, it may be destructive for the other.
• For development, people look at a mix of goals.
• The most important part of development is income.
• Besides more income, people also want equal treatment, freedom, security and respect of others.

Question 2.
“What may be the development for one may not be developed for the other.”Explain this statement with a suitable example.
Answer:
Different people have different notions of development because life situations of every person are different.
Example-Construction of dams leads to the generation of electricity. This development causes displacement of many people from their villages to other places, due to the submergence of the land, hence it may not mean development for them.

Question 3.
Explain any three criteria used by Human Development Report to classify various countries.
Answer:
Following are the three criteria used by huma’ development report to classify various countries:
(i) Per capita income: People with more per capita income can buy nutritious food, get better healthcare facilities and give proper education to their children. Therefore, per capita income is the major attribute of considering development.
(ii) Educational levels of the people: Educated people will be able to get better jobs and higher earnings due to their higher education status.
(iii). Health status: Health will be good and longevity will increase when people will be able to afford better healthcare facilities. In fant mortality will also reduce due to better healthcare, resulting in a further increase in life expectancy at birth.

Question 4.
How is the issue of sustainability important for development? Explain with examples.
Answer:
The issue of sustainability is important for development due to following reasons:

• There is a limited stock of natural resources, and if they are not used judiciously then there will be nothing left for future generations.
• Without sustainable development, an ecological disbalance may be created leading to the destruction of the environment.
• Without sustainable development, ecological disbalance may also lead to environmental pollution which is very difficult to handle. For example, air and water pollution are rising due to industrial waste.

Question 5.
What does sustainability of development mean? How can sustainable development be achieved?
Answer:
Sustainability of development means that development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations. Here, the natural resources should be used in such a way that environmental balance is also maintained.

Sustainable development can be achieved in the following ways:

• By scientific and proper use of the resources.
• By finding out ways to stop environmental pollution.
• By developing renewable sources of energy like water, wind and solar energy.

Question 6.
Although averages are useful for comparing countries, they also hide disparities?
Explain the meaning of this statement. Support the statement with suitable arguments.
OR
Why is Per Capita Income not an adequate indicator of economic development of a country?
Answer:
Average or Per Capita Income is useful for comparing countries, but they also hide disparities. They do not give the true picture of a country due to the following reasons:

• They do not tell us how equally or evenly income is distributed.
• They do not give information regarding other vital data, such as literacy rate, infant morality rate, etc.
• They do not give us any information regarding the non-materialistic goods and services such as equality, freedom, respect, dignity.

Question 7.
Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well. Explain.
Answer:
Money cannot buy all the goods and sevices that one needs to live well because

• Apart from money, the infrastructural facilities like health and education are also required to live well.
• Money cannot fulfil non-material needs like friendship, love, care, freedom, job security, good working atmosphere etc.
• Public facilities like clean environment, protection from infectious diseases can not be bought by money ajonc.

Question 8.
Developmental goals are differing goals also. Explain with an example.
Answer:
Development goals are differing goals. This is because different people have different situations in life due to which their goals are different. For example, the development goals of a girl from a rich urban family will be surely different from a farmer in Rajasthan. It is because their situations, lifestyle and status are very different from each other. The goal of a person is something, which is entirely dependent on his or her person life situation over a period of time, if the situation changes, automatically goals of a personal will also change. Hence, developmental goals are differing goals also.

Question 9.
Why do people look at a mix of goals for development? Explain.
Answer:
Though income is one of the most important components of development but there are other important goals which people look at for development.

• People also seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security and respect.
• Women need a safe and secure environment to take up a variety of jobs or to run businesses and entrepreises.
• People seek a pollution-free environment.
• Students seek better education and equal opportunities to learn.

Question 10.
What are common developmental goals? Give any two suitable examples of common developmental goals.
Answer:
There are certain goals which arc same and common for all. These are common development goals that people have not only about better income but also about other important things, life. More income or more material goods do not always provide us good quality of life. There are other aspects such as equal treatment, freedom, security, opportunity to learn, goods working condition, pollution-free atmosphere, job security and good social life which are very important for a good qualit of life. Money or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But quality of our life also depends or non-material things, for example – the role of our friends in our life which cannot be measured but means a lot to us.

Question 11.
Why is the issue of sustainability important for development?
Answer:
Sustainable economic development means that. development should take place without damaging the environment and over-exploitation of resources Development in the present should not compromise the needs of future generations.

• It is important for the future generation requirement: We must use non-renewable sources judiciously. They also need extra care as they cannot be renewed. Depending on non-renewable sources should be reduced.
• Proper utilization and reducing wastage of resources: It takes care of future needs and may sustain the environment.
• There is an acute shortage or deficiency of some resources: Investing in alternative sources of energy may prove helpful.

Question 12.
What is the difference between developed countries and developing countries?
Answer:

• Developed Countries-Those countries, which have higher per capita income and better standard of living, are called developed countries. Example-United State of America, United Kingdom etc.
• Developing Countries-Those countries, which have less per capita income and lower standard of living, are called developing or low-income countries. Example-India, Bangladesh, Pakistan etc.

Question 13.
Distinguish between National Income and Per Capita Income.
Answer:
Following arc the points of distinction between Per Capita Income and National Income:

Per Capita Income:
1. The total income of the country divided by its total population is called per capita in co me .
2. Per capita income is based upon national income.
3. Per capita income shows the income of each citizen of the country.

National Income:
1. The sum total of the market value of final goods and services produced in a country in one year is called national income.
2. National income is based upon the output or income generated during an accounting year.
3. National income shows the total income of the country.

Question 14.
What is sustainable economic development? Write any three measures to control environmental degradation.
Answer:
Sustainability for development or sustainable development refers to the developmentwhich takes place without damaging the environment. Such development should also not compromise on the needs of future generations, otherwise, it is meaningless.

Following are three measures to contro’ environmental degradation:

• Over-exploitation of resources should be avoided. Rule of three ‘Rs i.e. Recycle. Reduce and Reuse, should be adopted.
• In place of conventional and non-renewable energy resources, renewable energy resources must be adopted.
• New technologies should be developed for judicious use of resources and pollution free environment.

Question 15.
What is meant by public facilities ? Why are they important?
OR
Give some advantages of Public facilities.
Answer: Public facilities-It indicates some of the essential facilities available in the country, like- public libraries, hospitals, schools, children playgrounds and public toilets etc. These facilities are provided by the government for the citizens. Importance of public facilities-Public facilities are important because many people don’t have enough income to be able to avail facilities provided by the private sector, resulting in difficulties, like-inadequate healthcare and poor nutrition etc.

Advantages of Public facilities are as follows:

• It provides the resources which can be used by the public at large. This helps in ensuring that people are getting better quality of life, by using these facilities.
• It creates better infrastructure, like- roads, bridges, power, health, education for the country.
• It gives the impression of the level of development of the country, in terms of quality of life and the investment made in the facilities to be provided to the public.

Question 16.
By whom is Human Development Index prepared ? How is it calculated?
Answer:
Human Development Index is prepared by an organization, named, UniWd Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Human Development Index is calculated on certain parameters known to indicate the development of the people of a country.

These parameters are as follows:

• Life expectancy at birth.
• Gross Enrolment Rate for primary school, secondary school and higher education.
• Per capita income.

Question 17.
Give the meaning of Public Distribution System. Explain its advantages.
Answer:
Meaning of Public Distribution System Ref Point 17 ‘Important Terms’.

Advantages:

• It distributes subsidised food and non-fòod items to India’s poor.
• The people get essential goods and do not face scarcity of these things, even at unprosperous times.
• Government can easily control the trend of rising prices of essential goods, and even can give goods of better qualities at reasonable prices to the poor.

Question 18.
What is meant by BMI? How is it calculated?
Answer:
BMI means Body Mass Index. It is a level of estimating undernourished adults in an economy. Nutritional scientists call it Body Mass Index.

it is calculated as –

• Firstly, weight of the person in kilograms and height in metres has to be noted.
• Secondly, divide the weight by the square of the height.
  BMI Weight =
•  If the calculated BMI is less than 185, then person is said to be undernourished, while if it comes more than 25, then the person is said to be overweight.

Note-This criterion is not applicable to growing children.

Question 19.
Is human development essential for economic development? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, human development is essential for economic development, due to the following reasons:
(1) Per capita income with equitable distribution shows that there is less gap between rich and poor.
(2) Educational status of the people shows the quality of population of a country to undertake high-paying jobs, like-medical, engineering, finance sector, etc.
(3) Health status indicates the life expectancy of people, so that they can work longer in their life period and generate income for the strong economy.

Question 20.
Do you think that there are certain other aspects that should be considered in measuring human development?
Answer:
HDI does not take every aspect of human development into account. It focuses only on three aspects longevity, education and standard of living. There are some other aspects of human life, which should be kept in mind while comparing two nations or more. These aspects are freedom, security, public participation etc. But, the notion for concentrating on three basic dimensions of human lives is that, if these three basic capabilities are achieved, than they would open up opportunities in other dimensions of human lives, valued by people. The HDJ is not a perfect index. It does not fully measure the development of humans It does not provide a comprehensive picture of human development. It is just like a summary measure. It does not go into depth and neither tells about the various aspects of human development.

Question 21.
Why has there been a conflict for developmental goals in India?
Answer:
There has been a conflict for developmental goals in India due to the gap between rich and poor. Rich people demand different types of luxury items that can hardly be produced in India. Even if these items are produced in India, it would consume a lot of resources, which could have been used for the benefit of millions of poor sections of society. Also, the availability of resources is very less and these have to be utilized in such a way, that the need of all the people of the country is met. In these terms, there has been a conflict, as to where the resources should be consumed, so that the benefit can be provided to the maximum number of people.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is development? Describe various developmental goals.
Answer:
Meaning of development:
Development is a process, in which, per capita income increases and poverty, inequality, illiteracy and suffering reduce, i.e. the economic level of people improves and the living standard raises.

Various goals of development are as follows:

1. To increase income: This is the main goal of development. With increased income, people begin to live more happily. It includes the goal of increment in per capita income, as well as national income. An increase in income improves the standard of living.

2. More days of work and better wages:
Another goal of development is that it allows more days of work for the people, that is, people get regular employment. They should get regular employment as well as better wages so that they can live a good life. Farmers should be given increased minimum support prices for their crops.

3. Educational development:
Education plays an important role in development. Educated persons become more skilled and good producers. Due to education, not only an individual but also the nation develops. Therefore, the development of educational facilities is also necessary

4. Equal treatment:
All people should be treated equally in the developmental process. Social, as well as political equalities, should be included with economic equality.

5. Security:
Any nation should progress in such a way that people of all communities feel secure in their country.

6. Healthcare and sanîtation:
To live a healthy life, is one of the basic needs of human beings. This is possible, only, when the country has ample resources to ensure that people get facilities in terms of healthcare and sanitation. Government should be able to take care of the need of an adequate number of hospitals in the country, to ensure that this facility is available to all at a reasonable cost. Increment in health facilities will have positive effects on production and income.

7. Increment in public facilities:
An important goal of the progress of a country is that public facilities should be increased, so that collective necessity can be fulfilled.

Question 2.
Explain any five different basis of comparison of the development of different nations.
Answer:
The five different bases of comparison of development are as follows :
(i) National income:
The monetary value of all final goods and services produced in a definite period in an economy is known as National income. A country, with a higher level of national income, is considered more developed than a country, which has a low national income is enlarged, there is more availability of goods and services in the country, which means higher level of consumption and higher standard of living of the people. .

(ii) Per capita income:
This is the total national income divided by the total population. It is considered as a better indicator of development, an increase in per capita income leads to an improvement in the standard of living.

(iii) Literacy Rate:
Measures the proportion of the literate population in the age group of 7 and above. In other words, this is the total percentage of the population of an area, at a particular time, aged seven years or above, who can read and write with understanding.

(iv) Life expectancy at Birth-It indicates the number of years a newborn child is expected to live.

(v) Gross enrolment Ratio:
Total enrolment in a specific level of education, regardless of age, is expressed as a percentage of the official school-age population, corresponding to the same level of education, in a given school/year.

Question 3.
What do you mean by public facilities? Describe any four public facilities needed for development.
Answer:
Public facilities:
It indicates some of the essential facilities available in the country, like-public libraries, hospitals, schools, children’s playgrounds and public toilets etc. These facilities are provided by the government for the citizens.

The importance of public facilities-Public facilities are important because many people don’t have enough income to be able to avail facilities provided by the private sector, resulting in difficulties, like- inadequate healthcare and poor nutrition etc.

The advantages of Public facilities are as follows:

• It provides the resources which can be used by the public at large. This helps in ensuring that people are getting better quality of life, by using these facilities.
• It creates better infrastructure, like- roads, bridges, power, health, education for the country.
• It gives the impression of the level of development of the country, in terms of quality of life and the investment made in the facilities to be provided to the public.

Some public facilities needed for development are as follows:

• Pollution-free environment-Government should take care to provide pollution-free environment to the people, by setting industries outside residential areas, by keeping check on vehicles, by planting more trees, etc.
• Collective security-It should be government’s responsibility to provide security to the people, for the localities as a whole.
• More schools and colleges-It should be government’s responsibility to open more schools and colleges for the children, so that most of the children get educated, and should also arrange it at most nominal cost.
• Health care-One of the basic needs of human beings is to lead a healthy life. It should be government’s responsibility to provide health care to the people. Government should be able to take care of the need of an adequate number of hospitals in the country. to ensure that medical facility is available to all, ut a reasonable price.

Question 4.
“National Development of a country depends on the availability of public facilities.” how?
Answer:
It is right that national development of a country depends on the availability of public facilities. Public facilities are those provided by the government for its citizens. They may be either highly subsidized or totally free of cost far the people. They are important because poor people do not have enough income to be able to avail facilities provided by the private sector, resulting in difhiculties faced like inadequate
health care, poor nutrition, lack of education etc.

The utility of two public facilities available in India are following:
(i) The Public Distribution System (PDS) provides fair average quality of foodgrains and other essential items to the weaker sections of the population at subsidized prices.
(ii) Healthcare includes government hospitals and dispensaries, which are provided to all at subsidized rates. This includes outpatient as well as hospitalization facilities.

Question 5.
“Consequence of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
It is true that the consequences of environmental degradation is now a global issue and discussed all over the world. They are not restricted to nation or state boundaries. The consequences are felt in the surrounding states, nations and also globally. For example,

• Air Pollution through massive thermal power plants, vehicles and other sources, in India causes pollution in Pakistan, Nepal, etc.
• Our neighbours also experience increase in asthma and other lung diseases. Acid rain, climate change, etc are sorne issues which are transcontinental in consequences.
• Deforestation in Brazil has caused disturbance in rainfall pattern throughout south America.
• Land degradation and dam burst like conditions in China affect India and Bangladesh as it brings massive siltation and flood consequences.
• Therefore, environmental degradation is a major issue and its consequences are felt worldwide.

Question 6.
What. do you mean by Public fiwilities? Why are they important? Name two public facilities available in India.
Answer:
Public fiwilities are the flicilities provided by the government either free of cost or at. very low price for the welfare of the people like schools, health centres, public transport, etc. The importance of these facilities is to make it available to everyone for use so that the standard of living improves.

Four major facilities are as follows:
(i) Basic education- government provides school and other educational facilities like chair, books etc to be used by the public. But its use and performance depend on collective response and community cooperation.

(ii) Basic health facilities-Government provides hospitals, and vaccine programs to maintain a basic quality of life.

(iii) Law and order facility/security-It is the duty of the government to ensure law and order and provide security in order to maintain peace in the country.

(iv) Provision of public distribution system-Government opens PliS shops or ratioti shops through which it supplies basic food items likt’ rice, wheat, pulses, etc. at very low pricelsuhsidiscd rate to the lower income group or poor people. Other facilities include infrastructure facilities like roads, irrigation projects, drinking water supply in urban areas, etc.

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 1 यूरोप में राष्ट्रवाद का उदय Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 1 यूरोप में राष्ट्रवाद का उदय

यूरोप में राष्ट्रवाद का उदय Important Questions History HBSE 10th Class प्रश्न 1.
फ्रांस के किस कलाकार ने चार चित्रों की श्रृंखला बनाई थी?
उत्तर-
फ्रेड्रिक सॉरयू ने सन् 1848 में चार चित्रों की श्रृंखला बनाई थी।

Important Questions History HBSE 10th Class Chapter 1 यूरोप में राष्ट्रवाद का उदय प्रश्न 2.
निरंकुशवाद से आप क्या समझते हैं?
उत्तर-
निरंकुशवाद का अर्थ ऐसी सरकार अथवा शासन व्यवस्था से है जिसकी सत्ता पर किसी प्रकार की भी कोई रोक नहीं होती। इतिहास में इस प्रकार की राजशाही सरकारों को निरंकुश सरकार का नाम दिया जाता है। ये अत्यंत केंद्रीकृत, सैन्य बल पर आधारित व दमनकारी सरकारें होती थीं।

Chapter 1 यूरोप में राष्ट्रवाद का उदय Important Questions History HBSE 10th Class प्रश्न 3.
कल्पनादर्श क्या है?
उत्तर-
कल्पनादर्श एक इस प्रकार के समाज की परिकल्पना है जो इतना अधिक आदर्श है कि उसका सच होना लगभग
नामुमकिन है।

प्रश्न 4.
जनमत-संग्रह से क्या अभिप्राय है?
उत्तर-
जनमत-संग्रह एक ऐसा प्रत्यक्ष मतदान है जिसके द्वारा एक क्षेत्र के सारे लोगों से एक प्रस्ताव को स्वीकार अथवा अस्वीकार करने के लिए पूछा जाता है।

प्रश्न 5.
फ्रांस में राजतंत्र का अंत कब हुआ?
उत्तर-
1789 की क्रांति के पश्चात् फ्रांस में राजतंत्र खत्म हुआ।

प्रश्न 6.
बास्तील क्या था?
उत्तर-
बास्तील एक किले की भाँति था जो लुई सोलहवें से सम्बन्धित था। इसके पतन के साथ फ्रांसीसी क्रांति जुड़ी हुई मानी जाती है।

प्रश्न 7.
इस्टेट जनरल का चुनाव किस प्रकार होने लगा?
उत्तर-
इस्टेट जनरल का चुनाव सक्रिय नागरिकों के द्वारा होने लगा। बाद में इसका नाम बदल कर नेशनल एसेंबली कर दिया गया था।

प्रश्न 8.
नेपोलियन के उदय को कैसे समझ सकते हैं?
उत्तर-
फ्रांसीसी क्रांति के पश्चात् लगभग अगले दो वर्षों की परिस्थिति फ्रांस से राजनीतिक अस्थिरता व तोड़-फोड़ एवं संकअ की स्थिति थी। 1971 के संविधान ने चाहे ही फ्रांस में संवैधानिक राजतंत्र की स्थापना की हो, परन्तु राजनीतिक अस्थिरता का वातावरण बना रहा। 1799 में नेपोलियन की विजयों ने फ्रांस की स्थिति सुधारी, परन्तु बाद में वह स्वयं फ्रांस का सम्राट बन गया।

प्रश्न 9.
नेपोलियन बोनापार्ट ने क्या-क्या कानून लागू किये?
उत्तर-
नेपोलियन बोनापार्ट ने अनेक कानून लागू किये जिनमें सम्पत्ति की रक्षा तथा माप-तोल प्रणाली इत्यादि थे।

प्रश्न 10.
नेपोलियन ने कौन-सी व्यवस्था समाप्त की?
उत्तर-
नेपोलियन ने सामंती व्यवस्था को समाप्त किया था।

प्रश्न 11.
किस वर्ष में इटली का एकीकरण हुआ था?
उत्तर-
1859-1870 में इटली का एकीकरण हुआ था।

प्रश्न 12.
नेपोलियन का पतन किस वर्ष में हुआ था?
उत्तर-
सन् 1815 में नेपोलियन का पतन हुआ था।

प्रश्न 13.
हंगरी में किन-किन भाषाओं में बातचीत होती थी?
उत्तर-
हंगरी में आधे लोग मैग्यार भाषा का प्रयोग करते थे और बाकी के लोग अलग-अलग भाषाओं का प्रयोग करते – थे। जैसे गालीसिया में कुलीन वर्ग पोलिश भाषा का प्रयोग करता था।

प्रश्न 14.
यूरोपीय महाद्वीप का सबसे प्रभुत्वशाली वर्ग कौन-सा था?
उत्तर-
यूरोपीय महाद्वीप का सबसे प्रभुत्वशाली वर्ग कुलीन वर्ग था। ये जमीन के मालिक थे।

प्रश्न 15.
इंग्लैंड में औद्योगीकरण कब शुरू हुआ?
उत्तर-
इंग्लैंड में औद्योगीकरण 18वीं सदी के दूसरे भाग में शुरू हुआ था।

प्रश्न 16.
उदारवाद किस शब्द से बना है और इसका क्या अर्थ है?
उत्तर-
उदारवाद अर्थात् Liberalism शब्द लातिन भाषा के शब्द Liber पर आधारित है। उदारवाद का अर्थ है आजाद।

प्रश्न 17.
शुल्क संघ जॉलवेराइन किस वर्ष में स्थापित किया गया था?
उत्तर-
सन् 1834 में शुल्क संघ जॉलवेराइन की स्थापना हुई थी।

प्रश्न 18.
रुढ़िवाद का क्या अर्थ है?
उत्तर-
रूढ़िवाद का अर्थ ऐसे राजनीतिक दर्शन से है जो पंरपरा, स्थापित संस्थानों व रिवाजों पर बल देता है तथा तेज बदलावों के अतिरिक्त क्रमिक व धीरे-धीरे विकास को प्रध निता देता है।

प्रश्न 19.
किन शक्तियों ने मिलकर नेपोलियन को हराया था?
उत्तर-
सन् 1815 में प्रशा, रूस, ब्रिटेन और ऑस्ट्रिया जैसी यूरोपीय शक्तियों ने मिलकर नेपोलियन को हराया था।

प्रश्न 20.
किस वर्ष में विएना संधि तैयार हुई थी?
उत्तर-
1815 में विएना संधि तैयार हुई थी।

प्रश्न 21.
इटली के प्रसिद्ध क्रांतिकारी का नाम बताएँ?
उत्तर-
इटली के प्रसिद्ध क्रांतिकारी का नाम था-ज्युसेपी मेत्सिनी।

प्रश्न 22.
ज्युसेपी मेसिनी का जन्म कब और कहाँ हुआ था?
उत्तर-
ज्युसेपी मेत्सिनी का जन्म सन् 1807 में जेनोआ में हुआ था।

प्रश्न 23.
यंग इटली और यंग यूरोप संगठनों की स्थापना किसने की?
उत्तर-
यंग इटली और यंग यूरोप संगठनों की स्थापना ज्युसेपी मेत्सिनी ने की थी।

प्रश्न 24.
यूनानी संघर्ष किस वर्ष में आरंभ हुआ था?
उत्तर-
यूनानी संघर्ष 1821 में आरंभ हुआ था।

प्रश्न 25.
फ्रांस में प्रथम विद्रोह कब हुआ था?
उत्तर-
फ्रांस में प्रथम विद्रोह जुलाई, 1830 में हुआ था।

प्रश्न 26.
लॉर्ड बायरन की मृत्यु कब हुई?
उत्तर-
लॉर्ड बायरन की मृत्यु सन् 1824 में बुखार के कारण से हुई थी।

प्रश्न 27.
पोलिश भाषा की जगह किस भाषा ने ली थी?
उत्तर-
पोलिश भाषा की जगह रूसी भाषा ने ले ली थी।

प्रश्न 28.
कृषक विद्रोह कब हुआ था? उत्तर-1848 में कृषक विद्रोह हुआ था। प्रश्न 29. नारीवाद का क्या अर्थ है?
उत्तर-
नारीवाद का अर्थ है-स्त्री और पुरुष की सामाजिक, आर्थिक व राजनीतिक समानता की सोच/चिन्तन के आधार पर महिलाओं के अधिकारों और हितों का ज्ञान करवाना अथवा जानना।

प्रश्न 30.
नृजातीय का क्या अर्थ है?
उत्तर-
नृजातीय का अर्थ है-एक साझा नस्ली, जनजातीय अथवा सांस्कृतिक उद्गम या पृष्ठभूमि जिसे कोई भी समुदाय अपनी पहचान मानता है।

प्रश्न 31.
मारीआन की प्रतिमाएँ कहाँ स्थापित की गई थीं?
उत्तर-
मारीआन की प्रतिमाएँ सार्वजनिक चौकों पर स्थापित की गई थीं।

प्रश्न 32.
उदारवादियों की 1848 की वंति का क्या अर्थ लगाया जाता है? उदारवादियों ने किन राजनीतिक, सामाजिक एवं आर्थिक विचारों को बढ़ावा दिया?
उत्तर-
1830 की क्रान्ति में समय वर्ग की स्त्रियों एव पुरुषों ने संवैधानिक सुधारों के साथ-साथ राष्ट्रीय एकता पर जोर दिया। फ्रांस में जब 1848 की क्रान्ति हुई तो वहाँ के शासक लुई फिलिप (Louise Phillippe) उनको अपनी गद्दी छोड़कर भागना पड़ा और वहाँ एक गणतंत्र की स्थापना हुई। फ्रांस में होने वाली इस सफलता ने यूरोप के अन्य देशो के उदारवादियों को भी निरंकुशवाद और परतन्त्रता के विरुद्ध लोगों को संघर्ष करने के लिए भढ़काया। फिर क्या था। हर जगह-चाहे वह जर्मनी हो या फिर इटली, पोलैंड और आस्टिंया-हंगरी हो-लोगों ने राष्ट्र-राज्यों की स्थापना, जो प्रजातन्त्र के नियमों पर आधारित हों, संविधान, समाचार-पत्रों की स्वतन्त्रता और संघ बनाने की स्वतन्त्रता के लिए संघर्ष करना शुरु कर दिया।

परन्तु इन वन्तियों और संघर्ष के बावजूद यह उदारवादियों आन्दोलन महिलाओं को रातनीतिक अधिकार दिये जाने के प्रश्न चुप रहा। आर्थिक क्षेत्र में भी ममय वर्ग के उदारवादी अभी भी असमंजस में थे कि जनसाधारण को उन जैसे अधिकार दिए जाने चाहिये या नही। फिर भी इस उदारवादी आन्दोलन का यह परिणाम तो निकला कि किसान-दास (Serfdom) और बन्धुआ मजदूरों (Bonded labour)आदि की प्रथाए! अवश्य समाप्त कर दी गई।

प्रश्न 2.
यूरोप में राष्टंवाद के विकास में संस्कृति के योगदान को दर्शाने के लिए तीन उदाहरण दें।
उत्तर-
राष्ट्रवाद के विकास में जितना योगदान युणे और क्षेत्रीय विकास का रहा उससे भी अधिक महन्वपूर्ण भूमिका संस्कृति (Culture) की भी रही। रुमानीवाद (Romanticism) एक महन्चपूर्ण सांस्कृतिक आन्दोलन था। जिसने एक विशेष प्रकार से राष्ट्रीय भावना का विकास करने में महन्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई। रुमानी कवियों और कलाकारों ने तर्क-वितर्क और विज्ञान के महिमागान की आलोचना की और उसके सथान अंतर्दृष्टि और रहस्यवादी भावनाओं पर जोर दिया। उनका प्रयास था कि एक सांझी सांस्कृतिक विरासत और एक सांझे सांस्कृतिक अतीत को राष्ट्र का आधार बनाया जाए। एक सांझी सांस्कृतिक विरासत में कला, काव्य किस्से-कहानियों और संगीत एवं लोककथाओं, लोकगीतों और चित्रों आदि ने भी राष्ट्रवादी भावनाओं को प्रोत्साहित करने में अपना बड़ा सहयोग दिया।

वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित रिक्त स्थानों को दिए गए उपयुक्त शब्दों से पूरा करें।

(i) यूनानी स्वतंत्रता का संघर्ष………..में प्रारंभ हुआ था। (1820, 1821)
(ii) नेपोलियन का इटली पर हमला….में हुआ था। (1780, 1797)
(iii) नेपोलियन 1815 में…….युद्ध में हार गया था। (वाटरलू, एलपैंप)
(iv) ज्युसेपी मेत्सिनी का जन्म………….में हुआ था। (1807, 1809)
(v) 1804 की नागरिक संहिता को……….के नाम से जाना जाता है। (नेपोलियन संहिता, आचार संहिता)
(vi) संयुक्त समुदाय के विचार में………..मुख्य था। (उदारवाद, पितृभूमि)
(vii) 19वीं शताब्दी के मध्य में इटली………राज्यों में बँटा था। (सात, आठ)
उत्तर-
(i) 18021
(ii) 1997
(iii) वाटरलू
(iv) 1807
(v) नेपोलियन संहिता
(vi) पितृभूमि
(vii) सात।

निम्नलिखित में से सही (√) व गलत (x) की पहचान करें।

प्रश्न 2.
(i) सार्डिनिया-पीडमॉण्ट 1863 में ऑस्ट्रियाई बलों को हरा पाने में सफल हुआ।
(ii) जहाँ कुलीन वर्ग और सेना का विरोध बढ़ गया, वहीं संसद का सामाजिक आधार कमजोर हो गया।
(iii) 1830 का दशक यूरोप में भारी कठिनाइयाँ लेकर आया।
(iv) जर्मन इलाकों में बड़ी संख्या में राजनीतिक संगठनों ने फ्रैंकफर्ट शहर में मिलकर एक सर्व-जर्मन नेशनल एसेंबली के पक्ष में मतदान नहीं करने का फैसला किया।
(v) 1832 में कुस्तुनतुनिया की संधि ने यूनान को एक स्वतन्त्र राष्ट्र की मान्यता दी।
उत्तर-
(i) x
(ii) √
(iii) √
(iv) x
(v) √

निम्नलिखित में दिए गए विकल्पों में सही का चयन कीजिए।

प्रश्न 3.
(i) क्रांतियों का नेतृत्व उदारवादी-राष्ट्रवादियों ने किया जो…….लोग थे।
(क) मज़दूर
(ख) पूँजीपति
(ग) कलाकार
(घ) शिक्षित मध्यमवर्गीय विशिष्ट
उत्तर-
(घ) शिक्षित मध्यमवर्गीय विशिष्ट

(ii) पंद्रहवी सदी में यूनान निम्नलिखित राज्य का हिस्सा था
(क) ऑटोमन
(ख) फ्रांस
(ग) जर्मन
(घ) पोलैण्ड
उत्तर-
(क) ऑटोमन

(iii) यूरोपीय देशों में गरीबी के विरुद्ध किसान-मजदूर निम्न वर्ष में विद्रोह कर रहे थे
(क) 1847
(ख) 1848
(ग) 1849
(घ) 1845
उत्तर-
(ख) 1848

(iv) 1815 के बाद वर्षों में दमन के भय ने निम्न को भूमिगत कर दिया
(क) उदारवादी
(ख) राष्ट्रवादियों
(ग) उदारवादी-राष्ट्रवादियों
(घ) कोई भी नहीं
उत्तर-
(ग) उदारवादी-राष्ट्रवादियों

(v) भूमिगत संगठन जिसका निर्माण ज्युसेपी मेत्सिनी वह था
(क) मार्सेई में यंग इटली
(ख) बर्न में यंग यूरोप
(ग) कोई भी नहीं
(घ) क तथा ख दोनों
उत्तर-
(घ) क तथा ख दोनों

(vi) जुलाई क्रांति से ब्रूसेल्स में भी विद्रोह भड़क गया जिसके फलस्वरूप वह निम्नलिखित से अलग हो गया
(क) यूनाइटेड किंगडम ऑफ द नीदरलैण्डस्
(ख) फ्रांस
(ग) जर्मनी
(घ) उपर्युक्त कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(क) यूनाइटेड किंगडम ऑफ द नीदरलैण्डस्

(vii) ‘जब फ्रांस छींकता है तो बाकी यूरोप को सर्दी-जुकाम हो जाता है, ये निम्नलिखित ने कहा-
(क) लुई फिलिप
(ख) मैटरनिख
(ग) ज्युसेपी मेत्सिनी
(घ) उपर्युक्त कोई नहीं
उत्तर-
(ख) मैटरनिख

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europ Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europ

Multiple Choice Questions

Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europ HBSE 10th Class Important Questions and Answers Question 1.
The French artist, who prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘Democratic and Social Republics’ was:
(a) Carl Welcker
(b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Jacob Grimm
(d) Wilhelm Grimm.
Answer:
(b) Frederic Sorrieu

HBSE 10th Class Important Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Question 2.
Who was Ernst Renan?
(a) A French Philosopher
(b) A French artist
(c) A revolutionary
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) A French Philosopher

Chapter 1 Important Questions and Answers HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
In which of the following years, was the Civil Code, also known as the Napoleonic Code, framed?
(a) 1889
(b) 1804
(c) 1815
(d) 1813.
Answer:
(b) 1804

Question 4.
In which classes of Europe was the idea of national unification popularised ?
(a) Aristocratic class
(b) Business class
(c) Labour class
(d) Middle class.
Answer:
(d) Middle class.

Question 5.
The word ‘Liberalism’ derived from the Latin word ‘liber’ which means:
(a) slave
(b) freedom
(c) right
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(b) freedom

Question 6.
In which year was a custom union or ‘Zollverein’ formed at the initiative of Prussia?
(a) 1934
(b) 1950
(c) 1834
(d) 1813.
Answer:
(c) 1834

Question 7.
In which of the following years was the Vienna Peace Treaty organized?
(a) 1834
(b) 1813
(c) 1815
(d) 1915.
Answer:
(c) 1815

Question 8.
A political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs, and preferred gradual development to quick change is known as:
(a) Socialism
(b) Conservatism
(c) Capitalism
(d) Liberalism.
Answer:
(b) Conservatism

Question 9.
Who among the following established the organisation named ‘Young Italy’?
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Frederic Sorrieu
(d) Grimm Fairytales.
Answer:
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini

Question 10.
Who was Giuseppe Mazzini ?
(a) A French revolutionary
(b) An Italian revolutionary
(c) A British revolutionary
(d) A German revolutionary.
Answer:
(b) An Italian revolutionary

Question 11.
In which of the following years was the Frankfurt Parliament convened in St. Paul’s Church?
(a) 1848
(b) 1842
(c) 1925
(d) 1821
Answer:
(a) 1848

Question 12.
The movement of unification of Italy was led by:
(a) Emmanuel
(b) Bismarck
(c) Cavour
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(c) Cavou

Question 13.
Who was proclaimed the king of unified Italy in 1861?
(a) Emmanuel II
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) William I
(d) Bismark
Answer:
(a) Emmanuel II

Question 14.
Who is the most popular among the freedom fighters of Italy?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Cavour
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi

Question 15.
In which of the following years was the “Act of Union” signed between England and Scotland, that resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain?
(a) 1905
(b) 1938
(c) 1707
(d) 1798.
Answer:
(c) 1707

Question 16.
Which of the following countries was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801?
(a) Belgium
(b) Ireland
(c) Germany
(d) Scotland.
Answer:
(b) Ireland

Question 17.
The German oak is a symbol of :
(a) heroism
(b) freedom
(c) slavery
(d) unity.
Answer:
(a) heroism

Fill in the Blanks

1. Frederic Sorrieu was a ………….. artist.
Answer:
French.

2. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the …………. revolution in ………..
Answer:
French, 1789.

3. Napoleon simplified ………… divisions, ………….. the …………. system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
Answer:
administrative, abolished, feudal.

4. ……………. and ………….. were divided into kingdoms.
Answer:
Italy, Switzerland.

5. A wave of ………….. nationalism strengthened the wider nationalist …………… growing at the time.
Answer:
economic, sentiments.

6. The first upheaval took place in France in July ……………
Answer:
1830

7. …………….. forces were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848.
Answer:
Conservative.

Nations were then …………. as female figures.
Answer:
portrayed.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was Frederic Sorrieu?
Answer:
He was a French artist who prepared a series of four prints, visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social Republics’.

Question 2.
What is a utopian society?
Answer:
It is a vision of a society that is so ideal, that it is unlikely to actually exist.

Question 3.
In which year did the French Revolution take place?
Answer:
the french Revolution took place in 1789.

Question 4.
“the people must seize their own freedom.’ Who had given this slogan?
Ans.
Andreas Rebmann

Question 5.
of which organization was Andreas Rebmann a member?
Answer:
Rebmann was a member of a German Jacobin group.

Question 6.
Which social group was dominant in Europe in 18th century?
Answer:
The Aristocracy.

Question 7.
What was the nation-state?
Answer:
The nation-state was one in which the majority of its citizens and rulers came to develop a sense of common identity and shared history.

Question 8.
Give the meaning of liberalism.
Answer:
Liberalism stands for freedom for the individuals and equality of all before the law.

Question 9.
What was Zollverein?
Answer:
Zollverein was a customs union that was established in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia.

Question 10.
Which European powers defeated Napoleon in 1815?
Answer:
Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria.

Question 11.
Who hosted the Vienna Peace Treaty convened in 1815?
Answer:
Duke Metternich, the Austrian Chancellor.

Question 12.
What was the main objective of the Vienna Peace Treaty convened in 1815?
Answer:
Its main objective was to restore the power of monarchies that had been over, thrown by Napoleon.

Question 13.
What is conservatism?
Answer:
It is a political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs and preferred gradual development
to quick change.

Question 14.
When and where was Giuseppe Mazzini born?
Answer:
In 1807 in Genoa.

Question 15.
Name two underground organisations formed by Giuseppe Mazzini.
Answer:
(i) Young Italy
(ii) Young Europe.

Question 16.
At which place was the Young Italy formed ?
Answer:
Young Italy was formed in Marseilles.

Question 17.
At which place did Giuseppe Mazzini form Young Europe?
Answer:
Giuseppe Mazzini formed Young Europe in Berne.

Question 18.
Who were the members of both organizations of Mazzini-The Young Italy and Young Europe?
Answer:
Poland, France, Italy and Germany were members of both organizations.

Question 19.
What did Mazzini believe?
Answer:
Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind.

Question 20.
‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’. Who made this remark?
Answer:
Duke Metternich.

Question 21.
In which year did Belgium break away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands?
Answer:
Belgium broke away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands in 1830. –

Question 22.
Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation ?
Answer:
The Treaty of Constantinople in 1832.

Question 23.
What is Romanticism?
Answer:
It is an artistic, literary, and intellectual movement that originated in the 18th century to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment.

Question 24.
Which philosopher claimed that true German culture was discovered among the common people?
Answer:
Johann Gottfried. –

Question 25.
What were Polonaise and Mazurka ?
Answer:
Polonaise and Mazurka were the folk dances of Poland.

Question 26.
Who led an armed rebellion against Russia in 1831?
Answer:
Poland led an armed rebellion against Russia in 1831.

Question 27.
Who saw French domination as a threat for German culture?
Answer:
Jacob Grimm and Wilhelm Grimm.

Question 28.
Who gained the credit of the success of German unification?
Answer:
Otto von Bismarck gained credit of the success of German unification.

Question 29.
When was the Prussian King William I proclaimed the Emperor of Germany?
Answer:
In January 1871.

Question 30.
When has Germany declared an independent nation?
Answer:
Germany was declared an independent nation in 1871.

Question 31.
Who declared the new German Emperor in the unheated Hall of Mirrors in the palace of Versailles?
Answer:
Kaiser William I of Prussia.

Question 32.
In which year did Napoleon invade Italy?
Answer:
Napoleon invaded Italy in 1797.

Question 33.
Who led the movement of the unification of Italy?
Answer:
The chief minister Cavour led the movement of the unification of Italy.

Question 34.
When did Giuseppe Mazzini seek to put together a coherent program for the unitary Italian Republic?
Answer:
In the decade of 1830s.

Question 35.
Which country has the national anthem ‘God Save Our Noble King1?
Answer:
Great Britain.

Question 36.
When was the United Kingdom of Great Britain formed?
Answer:
The United Kingdom of Great Britain was formed in 1707.

Question 37.
Which country did Marianne represent?
Answer:
The Republic of France.

Question 38.
Which country did Germania represent?
Answer:
Germany.

Question 39.
Name the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871.
Answer:
The Balkans.

Question 40.
Who was broadly known as Slavs?
Answer:
The inhabitants of the Balkan region.

Question 41.
What is plebiscite ?
Answer:
A direct vote, by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Question 42.
What is suffrage?
Answer:
The right to vote.

Question 43.
What was the symbol of the strength of the German empire?
Answer:
Breastplate with eagle.

Short Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
What according to Ernst Renan is the definition of a nation?
Answer:
Ernst Renan was a French Philosopher. According to Ernst Renan, a nation is a culmination of a long past of endeavors, devotion and sacrifice. A heroic past, great men, glory, is the social capital, upon which, one bases a national idea. To have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the present, to have performed great deeds together, to wish to perform still more, are the essential conditions of being a unified nation. A nation is, therefore, large-scale solidarity. Its existence is a daily plebiscite.

Question 2.
What was the Napoleonic Code?
Answer:
The Civil Code of 1804 was introduced by Napoleon. It did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property for all citizens.

Question 3.
What were the reactions of the local population towards the French rule in the areas conquered?
Answer:
Initially, in many places, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of liberty. But, the initial enthusiasm soon turned to hostility, as it became clear that the new administrative arrangements did not go hand in hand with political freedom. Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies, etc. all seemed to outweigh the advantages of the administrative changes and were vehemently opposed by the local people.

Question 4.
Write the chief characteristics of the powerful aristocracy of Europe.
Answer:
The chief characteristics of the aristocracy of Europe are :

• Common way of living a life: The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions.
• Estate owning: They owned estates in the countryside and also townhouses.
• Use of French language: They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society.
• Inter-connected marital relations: Their families were often connected by ties of marriage.

Question 5.
Explain the ideology of liberalism which was developed in the early nineteenth-century Europe. (CBSE, Delhi Board 2020 )
Answer:
The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root ‘liber’ meaning ‘free’. For the few middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasized the concept of government by consent. In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.

Question 6.
What do you know about Zollverein?
Answer:
In 1834, a customs union or Zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states. This union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies, from over thirty, to two. The aim of the Zollverein was to bind the Germans economically into a nation. It was thought to be capable to awakening and raise national sentiments through a fusion of individual and provincial interests.

Question 7.
“Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.” Give reasons. –
Answer:
Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society¬like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family should be preserved. They realized, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernization could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and strong.
Therefore, most European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.

Question 8.
What were the major demands of liberal revolutionaries of Europe in 1848?
Answer:

• Men and women of the liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with national unification.
• They demanded for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles – a constitution, freedom of press and freedom of association.
• Women demanded their political rights.

Question 9.
What were the consequences of the liberal revolution in 1848 in Europe?
Answer:

• The autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
• Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished, both in the Habsburg dominions, and in Russia.
• The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867.

Question 10.
What do you know about Allegory ?
Answer:
When an abstract idea for instance, greed, freedom, envy and liberty is expressed through a person or a thing, it is known as Allegory. An allegorical story has two meanings- one literal and the other symbolic. During the French Revolution, the artists used the female allegory to portray ideas like Liberty, Justice and the Republic. In France, the nation was christened as Marianne, in Germany, Germania become the allegory of the German nation.

Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Through a return to monarchy, Napoleon had no doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the administrative field he incorporated revolutionary principles.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:

• The Napoleonic Code: This Civil Code of 1804 did away with all privileges based on birth. It established equality before the law and secured for citizens, the right to property.
• Reforms in rural areas: Napoleon simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
• Reforms in urban areas: In the towns, guild restrictions were removed. Transport and communication systems were improved.
• Reforms in Trade: Uniform laws, standardized weights and measures and a common national currency were adopted to facilitate the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one region to another.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for the emergence of middle classes in Europe ?
Answer:
The reasons for the emergence of middle classes in Europe were:

• In Western and Central parts of Europe, the growth of industrial production and trade meant the growth of towns and the emergence of commercial classes, whose existence was based on production for the market.
• Industrialisation began in England in the second half of the 18th century, but in France and parts of the German states, it occurred only during the nineteenth century.
•  In its wake, new social groups came into being : a working class population, and middle classes made up of industrialists, businessmen and professionals.
•  In Central and Eastern Europe, these groups were smaller in number till late 19th century.
• It was among the educated, liberal middle classes, that ideas of national unity, gained popularity, following the abolition of aristocratic privileges.

Question 3.
Compare the views of liberals and conservatives.
Answer:
Comparison between the views of liberals and conservatives
Liberals:

• Most of the people of middle classes followed the principle of liberalism.
• Liberalism argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, but did not believe in universal adult suffrage.
• The liberals were in favour of radical changes.

Conservatives:

• Most of the people who belonged to upper classes or associated with them followed conservatism.
• They believed in autocracy.
• They favoured only those changes which could strengthen autocratic monarchies of Europe.

Question 4.
By the last quarter of the 19th century, nationalism no longer retained its idealistic liberal-democratic sentiment of the first half of the 19th century, but became a narrow creed with limited ends. Explain.
Answer:
(1) Nationalist groups became increasingly intolerant of each other, and ever ready to go to war.
(2) The major European powers, in turn, manipulated the nationalist aspirations of the subject peoples in Europe to further their own imperialist aims.
(3) Many great powers were involved in the Balkans power struggle. The Balkan region became an area of intense conflict.
(4) The rivalries among the European powers over trade and colonies were increasing day by day.
(5) There were a series of wars among big powers like Russia, Germany, England, etc. which finally led to the First World War.
(6) The German confederation of thirty-nine states, that had been set up by Napoleon, f was left untouched.

Question 5.
What were the major proposals of Vienna Congress ?
OR
Describe in brief any four features of the ‘Vienna Treaty of 1815.’
Answer:
In 1815, representatives of Britain, Russia, Austria and Prussia met at Vienna, to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.

The major proposals of Vienna Congress were:

• The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was
  restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
• A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent the French expansion in future. Thus, the kingdom of Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north, and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south.
• Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria was given control of northern Italy.
• In the east, Russia was given part of Poland, while Prussia was given a portion of Saxony.
• The German confederation of thirty-nine states, that had been set up by’Napoleon, was left untouched.

Question 6.
‘The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe’. Give reasons.^
Answer:

• In the 1830s, an enormous increase in population was seen all over Europe.
• In most countries, there were more seekers of jobs than the employment opportunities
  available.
• Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums.
• Small producers in towns often faced stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England.
• In many regions of Europe, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues | and obligations.
• The rise of food prices, due to a year of bad harvest, led to widespread pauperism in towns and the countryside.

Question 7.
By giving examples, explain how Italy was politically more fragmented before the unification.
Answer:

• Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire.
• During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states.
• Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon king of Spain.
• Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form, and still had many regional and local variations.

From the above examples, it is clear that Italy was politically more fragmented before the unification.

Question 8.
Describe Count Cavour and the part played by him in the unification of Italy.
Answer:
Count Camillo de Cavour Camilla de was the Chief Minister of the Sardinia- Piedmont (Italy). He was a great administrator and an able reformer. The real credit for the unification of Italy goes to Count Cavour. He dedicated himself to achieve his goal of independence and unification of Italy. For this purpose, he took recourse to shrewd diplomacy. He took sides in many wars to persuade other states like Lombardy, Modena, Parma and Tuscany, to throw off the Austrian yoke and Join Sardinia. Before he died, he had unified the whole of Italy under Sardinia, except the Papal territories of Venetia and Rome. The historians bestow upon him, the honour of being ‘The Bismarck of Italy’.

Question 9.
Explain the role of Giuseppe Garibaldi in the freedom struggle of Italy.
Answer:
Giuseppe Garibaldi (1807-82) was a great freedom fighter of Italy. He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the merchant navy. Garibaldi is known as the ‘physical force’ or the ‘sword of Italy’. He, along with Mazzini, launched the ‘Young Italy’ movement for the unification of Italy. He inspired the Sardinian sailors to revolt in 1835 AD, whose action, however failed.

In 1848 A.D., he alongwith Mazzini, overthrew the Papal authority over Rome and declared it to be a republic. In 1860 A.D., his ‘Red Shirt/troops defeated Austria to secure the independence of Naples and Sicily, which later on joined Saridinia. In this way, Garibaldi’s contribution to achieve the unification of Italy is unforgettable.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the first clear expression of Nationalism that came within the French Revolution in 1789.
Answer:
The details of the French Revolution in 1789 are as follows :
1. Changes brought by the French Revolution: The political and constitutional changes, that came in the wake of the French Revolution in 1789, led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.

2. Various steps were taken by French Revolutionaries: To create a sense of common identity amongst the French people, the French revolutionaries took the following steps :

• The idea of la Patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasized the notion of a united community, employing common rights under a constitution.
• A new French flag, the tricolor was chosen to replace the French royal standard.
• The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens, known as the national assembly.
• New hymns were composed, martyrs commemorated and oaths taken, all in the name of the nation.
• A centralised administrative system was set up to formulate uniform laws for all citizens within French territory.
• Regional dialects were discouraged and French was adopted as common language of the nation.
• Internal custom duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
• The revolutionaries further declared, that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism, in other words, to help other people of Europe to become nations.

3. Influence of the French revolution on Europe : The main influence of the French revolution on Europe was as follows :

• The French revolution developed Nationalism.
• The French revolution gave a democratic theory to the whole world.
• The French revolution helped other people of Europe to become nations.
• Students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.
• The activities and campaigns of the Jacobin clubs prepared the way for the French armies, which moved into Belgium, Switzerland, Holland and Italy in the 1790s.
• The French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism into various countries.

Question 2.
Why was the time period from 1830 to 1848 known as the age of revolutions ?
Explain.
Answer:
Many revolutions occurred during 1830 to 1848. As conservative regimes tried to consolidate their power, liberals and nationalists opposed them. During this period, revolutions occurred in Italy, the German states, the provinces of the Ottoman Empire, Ireland and Poland. These revolutions were led by the liberal-nationalists belonging to the educated middle-class elite.

(1) Upheaval in France:
The first upheaval took place in France in July 1830. The Bourbon kings, who had been restored to power after the Vienna Congress by the conservatives, were now overthrown by the liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy, with Louis Philippe as its head.

(2) Uprising in Brussels:
The July revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels, which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.

(3) Uprising in Greece:
Greece had been a part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greece, which began in 1821 and resulted in the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832, recognising Greece as an independent nation.

Question 3.
Explain in detail the German Liberal Movement of 1848.
Answer:
(1) The German Liberal Movement was led by a large number of political associations, whose members were middle-class professionals, businessmen and prosperous artisans. They all came together in the city of Frankfurt and decided to vote for all-German National Assembly.
(2) On 18th May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive procession with the new constitution to take their places in the Frankfurt Parliament, convened in the Church of St. Paul.
(3) The new constitution was rejected by Friedrich Wilhelm IV, the King of Prussia. He joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly.
(4) The newly elected members never supported the demands of the poor class, so they lost their support.
(5) A large number of women also participated in this movement, though they were not given political rights.
(6) In the end, troops were called in, and the assembly was forced to disband.

Question 4.
How did England establish its supremacy over Scotland and Ireland to build a new British kingdom?
OR
Explain the incorporation of Scotland and Ireland into England.
Answer:
Incorporation of Scotland into the United Kingdom : The Act of Union (1707), between England and Scotland, resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom. The growth of a British identity in the parliament meant that Scotland’s distinctive culture and political * institutions were systematically supressed. The Catholic clans, that inhabited the Scottish Highlands, suffered terrible repression, whenever they attempted to assert their independence. The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress, and large number of people were forcibly driven out of their homeland.

Incorporation of Ireland into the United Kingdom:
Before its incorporation, the country was deeply divided between Catholics and Protestants. The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to impose their dominance over a largely Catholic country. In 1798, after a failed revolt led by Wolfe Tone and his United Irishmen party, Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801, under the Act of Union, 1801.

Question 5.
Why did nationalist tension emerge in the Balkans ?
OR
“After 1871, the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe was the Balkans.” Explain the statement with reasons.
Answer:

• The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation, comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro, whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs.
• The Balkan peninsula had been under the control of the Ottoman Empire.
• However, in the 19th century, with the decline of the Ottoman Empire, the influence of major European Powers increased.
• In the 19th century, the European subject nationalities of the Ottoman Empire broke away from its control, and declared independence.
• As different Slavic nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence, the Balkans area became an area of intense conflict.
• Each power-Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary-was keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans and extending its own control over the area.
• This led to a series of wars in the region, and finally, the First World War.

Map Work

Question 1.
On the political map show the Europe of Vienna Congress 1815.
Answer:

Question 2.
On the political map, show the unification of Germany. Ans.

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 3 Water Resource Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 3 Water Resource

Multiple Choice Questions

Class 10 Water Resources Important Questions HBSE Question 1.
Which of the following is a source of fresh water?
(a) Surface run-off
(b) Groundwater
(c) Both of these
(d) Ocean.
Answer:
(c) Both of these

Class 10 Geography Water Resources Important Questions HBSE Question 2.
Through which of the following is the freshwater continually being renewed and recharged :
(a) Oxygen cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Life cycle
(d) Hydrological cycle.
Answer:
(d) Hydrological cycle.

Important Question Of Water Resources HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
What percentage of the total water exists as oceans?
(a) 20 per cent
(b) 97-5 per cent
(c) 28-60 per cent
(d) 99-10 per cent.
Answer:
(b) 97-5 per cent

Question 4.
What percentage of the earth surface is covered with water?
(a) About 1/2
(b) About 3/4
(c) About 1/4
(d) About 2/3.
Answer:
(b) About 3/4

Question 5.
Which of the following is the reason of water scarcity?
(a) Over-exploitation
(b) Over-utilisation
(c) Unequal distribution
(d) About 3/4
Answer:
(d) About 3/4

Question 6.
Which one of the following is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment?
(a) Multipurpose Project
(b) Dam
(c) Embankment
(d) Bridge.
Answer:
(b) Dam

Question 7.
Hirakud dam is on the river
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Satluj
(c) Narmada
(d) Krishna.
Answer:
(a) Mahanadi

Question 8.
Which of the following is not true with reference to multipurpose river projects?
(a) The building of multipurpose projects leads to the salination of the soil.
(b) These have led to many social movements like Narmada Bachao Andolan.
(c) These increase unemployment.
(d) The big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive rainfall.
Answer:
(c) These increase unemployment.

Question 9.
Who proudly proclaimed the dams as the “temples of modern India” ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Dr Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 10.
On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Dam constructed?
(a)Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Satluj.
Answer:
(c) Bhagirathi

Question 11.
With which of the following rivers is the Sardar Sarovar Project associated?
(a) Narmada
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Kaveri.
Answer:
(a) Narmada

Question 12.
In which of the following states did people develop inundation channels to irrigate their fields?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) West Bengal
(c) Punjab
(d) Haryana.
Answer:
(b) West Bengal

Question 13.
Rainwater harvesting system in mountain regions is known as :
(a) Tank
(b) Guls or Kuls
(c) Canal
(d) Rooftop.
Answer:
(b) Guls or Kuls

Question 14.
In which of the following states is rooftop rainwater harvesting commonly practised?
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Assam
(d) Bengal.
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

Question 15.
Which of the following regions in India suffers most from water scarcity?
(a) Western Rajasthan
(b) North-East States
(c) Flood Plains
(d) Coastal regions.
Answer:
(a) Western Rajasthan

Question 16.
Which of the following is not true with reference to rainwater harvesting?
(a) It solves the problem of water scarcity.
(b) It is an environment-friendly technique.
(c) It is very cheap.
(d) It can be used to generate electric power.
Answer:
(d) It can be used to generate electric power.

Question 17.
Which of the following states is the first and only state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting compulsory for all houses across the state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu.

Fill In the blanks

1. All water moves within the ……………. cycle ensuring that water is a …………. resource.
Answer:
hydrological, renewable.

2. We find that ……………. water resources are being over …………. and have caused their depletion in several of the cities.
Answer:
fragile exploited.

3. Dams were ………….. built to impound rivers and collect …………. that could be used later to irrigate ……….. fields.
Answer:
traditionally, rainwater, agricultural.

4. Irrigation has also changed the cropping ……….. of many regions with farmers shifting to water-intensive and crops.
Answer:
pattern, commercial.

5. The floods not only …………… life and property but also cause extensive soil
Answer:
devastate, erosion.

6. …………… rainwater harvesting is the most common practice in Shillong.
Answer:
Rooftop.

7. Rooftop has been used for collection of ………
Answer:
rainwater.

8. …………… is the first state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting …………….. structure compulsory for all the …………….. across the state.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, houses.

Match the following

Match Column A to Column B:

Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we obtain fresh water?
Answer:
We obtain fresh water from the precipitation, surface runoff and ground water.

Question 2.
Where and in which form is the maximum volume of fresh water found?
Answer:
Nearly 70 per cent of the earth’s fresh water occurs as ice sheets and glaciers in Antarctica, Greenland and the mountainous regions of the world.

Question 3.
When does water stress occur according to Falken Mark?
Answer:
According to Falken Mark, a Swedish expert, water stress occurs when water availability is between 4,000 and 1,600 cubic metre per person per year.

Question 4.
What are the major reasons for the river pollution in India?
Answer:

• Increasing population
• Urbanisation
• Expanded irrigation,
• Industrialisation.

Question 5.
Where were the evidences of sophisticated irrigation works found?
Answer:

• Kalinga (Odisha)
• Nagarjunakonda (Andhra Pradesh)
• Bennur (Karnataka),
• Kolhapur (Maharashtra).

Question 6.
Who built the Hauz Khas tank in Delhi in the 14th century for supplying water supply to Siri Fort area?
Answer:
Iltutmish.

Question 7.
How are the dams classified on the basis of structure and material used?
Answer:
Based on the structure and the materials used, dams are classified as –

• Timber dams
• Embankment dams
• Masonry dams.

Question 8.
Why did Jawaharlal Nehru proclaim the dams as ‘The Temples of Modem India’?
Answer:
The reason behind it was that dams would integrate development of agriculture and the village economy, with rapid industrialisation and growth of the urban economy.

Question 9.
What are multipurpose river valley projects?
Answer:
These are river valley projects which serve a number of purposes simultaneously, such as irrigation, flood control, generation of hydroelectricity, fisheries etc.,

Question 10.
What is the basic reason behind the movements like Narmada Bachao and Tehri Dam?
Answer:
Large-scale displacement of the local communities.

Question 11.
Why are inter-state water disputes becoming common regarding the multipurpose projects?
Answer:
Inter-state water disputes are becoming common with regard to sharing the costs and benefits of the multipurpose projects.

Question 12.
Name any two states of India which suffer from water scarcity.
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan
(ii) Gujarat.

Question 13.
Name the river on which the Mettur dam is built.
Answer:
Kaveri.

Question 14.
Which states are related to the Krishna-Kaveri dispute?
Answer:

• Maharashtra
• Karnataka
• Andhra Pradesh.

Question 15.
How do people conserve water in hills and mountainous regions?
Answer:
By building diversion channels like guls or kuls.

Question 16.
What are kuls?
Answer:
A kul is a circular village tank from which water is released as and when required.

Question 17.
Name any three states where rooftop rainwater harvesting is practised.
Answer:

• Meghalaya
• Rajasthan
• Tamil Nadu.

Question 18.
Name any two techniques of rooftop rainwater harvesting.
Answer:

• Recharge through hand pump.
• Recharge through abandoned dugwell.

Question 19.
How do people harvest water in the floodplains of Bengal?
Answer:
By building inundation channels to irrigate their fields.

Question 20.
How do people harvest water in the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan?
Answer:
By building underground tanks or tanks.

Question 21.
What is Palar PanP?
Answer:
The purest form of rainwater is known as Palar Pani.

Question 22.
Which area has been irrigated by Rajasthan Canal?
Answer:
Western Rajasthan.

Question 23.
In which state is the Bamboo drip irrigation method prevalent?
Answer:
Meghalaya.

Question 24.
What is River Basin?
Answer:
The catchment area of a river is River Basin.

Question 25.
What is WetLand?
Answer:
A Tract of marshy land is called a wetland.

Short Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
Distinguish between surface water and underground water.
Answer:
Surface Water:

• It includes rivers, lakes, canals etc. found on the land surface.
• It can occur anywhere.

Underground Water:

• It includes wells and tubewells. The water is drawn from below the surface.
• It occurs in areas of soft and deep soil.

Question 2.
What is a hydrological cycle?
Answer:
The hydrological cycle is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere, in different forms, i.e. liquid, solid and the gaseous phases. It also refers to the continuous exchange of water between the ocean, atmosphere, land surface, sub-surface and organisms.

Question 3.
What do you understand by water scarcity? Mention any four factors responsible for water scarcity.
Answer:
Shortage of water, as compared to its demand, is known as water scarcity.

Factors responsible for water scarcity are:

• Over-exploitation of water resources.
• Industrialisation and urbanisation.
• Improper management.
• Unequal access to water among different social groups.

Question 4.
“Growing population is responsible for water scarcity.” Explain.
Answer:
A large population means the use of more water, not only for domestic use, but also to produce more food. Hence, to facilitate higher foodgrain production, water resources are being over-exploited to expand irrigated areas and dry-season agriculture. Over-use by tubewells may lead to falling groundwater levels, adversely affecting water availability.

Question 5.
How is industrialisation responsible for water scarcity? Explain.
Answer:
The ever-increasing number of industries has made matters worse by exerting pressure on existing freshwater resources. Industries require power to run, which is produced from water. Besides this, industrial sewage pollutes water making it hazardous for human use.

Question 6.
“To conserve and manage our water resources is the need of the hour.” Give any four reasons.
Answer:
We have to conserve and manage our water resources:

• To safeguard ourselves from health hazards.
• To ensure food security.
• To prevent the degradation of our natural ecosystem.
• To save future generations from the water crisis.

Question 7.
What are dams? Why are they called multipurpose river projects?
Answer:
A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment. Today, dams are built not just for irrigation, but also for electricity generation, water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control, inland navigation and fish breeding. Hence, dams are now referred to as multipurpose projects.

Question 8.
What is the main difference between traditional dams and modern dams?
Answer:
Traditional dams were built to impound rivers and rainwater, that could later be used to irrigate the agricultural fields. But today, dams are referred to as multipurpose projects, where many uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another.

Question 9.
How are dams classified?
Answer:
Dams are classified according to their structure, intended purpose and height :

• Based on structure and the material used, dams are classified as timber dams, embankment dams or masonry dams.
• Based on intended purpose, these may be single purpose dams or multipurpose dams.
• According to height, dams can be categorised as (a) large dams and major dams, and (b) low dams, medium-height dams and high dams.

Question 10.
Throw light on the major purposes of the multipurpose projects.
Answer:
The major purposes of multi-purpose projects are:

• To provide irrigation facilities for agriculture.
• To control floods.
• To produce hydro-electricity.
• To control land degradation.
• To develop industries.
• To develop water transport.
• To promote fish breeding.
• To manage pure drinking water.

Question 11.
What do you know about the Rrishna-Godavari dispute?
Answer:
The Rrishna-Godavari dispute is due to the objections raised by Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka governments, regarding the diversion of more water at Koyna village by the Maharashtra government for a hydroelectric project. It would reduce downstream flow in both states, with adverse consequences, both for Industry and Agriculture.

Question 12.
What is the need of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
The need of rainwater harvesting is as follows:

• To conserve water
• To reduce groundwater pollution
• To raise groundwater level
• To meet the increasing demand for water
• To avoid and control floods.

Question 13.
Explain rooftop rainwater harvesting technique.
Answer:

• Rooftop rainwater is collected on the roof or a house top by using PVC pipes.
• This collected water is filtered by using sand and bricks.
• Underground pipe is used to take the water to the sump for immediate usage.
• Excess water from the sump is taken to the well.
• Water from the well recharges the underground water.

Question 14.
How does rainwater harvesting system operate in the towns and villages of the Thar Desert in Rajasthan?
Answer:
In the towns and villages of the Thar Desert in Rajasthan, the rain water that falls on the sloping roofs of houses is taken through a pipe into an underground tanka, built in the main house or in the courtyard.

Question 15.
How does the rooftop rainwater hairvesting system operate in Shillong and Meghalaya?
Answer:
Rooftop rainwater harvesting system is the most common practice in Shillong and Meghalaya. Shillong faces acute water shortage. Nearly, every household in the city has a rooftop rainwater harvesting structure. 15-20 percent of the household water requirement comes from rooftop rainwater harvesting.

Question 16.
Mention four factors responsible for pollution of rivers in India.
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for pollution of rivers in India :

• Urbanisation.
• Agricultural modernisation.
• Industrialisation.
• Rapidly increasing population.

Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Identify the different sources of water.
Answer:
Water is an important natural resource. Without water, there would be no life on the earth. Three-fourths of the earth’s surface is covered with water, but only a small proportion of it accounts for freshwater that can be put to use. Rainfall is the main source of water.

Based on the sources, water is available to us in the following different forms:

• Surface Water: It is obtained from rainfall and the melting of snow. All rivers, ponds, lakes and tanks etc. are the sources of surface water.
• Ground Water: A part of the rainwater percolates through the pores and crevices of the rocks into the earth’s crust. It is available below the surface. Groundwater is taken out by digging wells and tubewells.
• Ocean Water: 97.5 per cent of the total volume of the world’s water is estimated to exist as oceans: Although this water is not used like freshwater, but it provides a diverse aquatic life.

Question 2.
Explain the quantitative and qualitative aspects of water scarcity.
Answer:
(i) Quantitative Aspect:
This aspect is related to the availability of water resources. The availability of water resources varies over space and time, mainly due to variations in seasonal and annual precipitation. However, water scarcity in most cases is caused by over exploitation, excessive use and unequal access to water among different social groups.

(ii) Qualitative Aspect:
It is considered to be another situation, where water is sufficiently available to meet the needs of the people, but, the area still suffers from water scarcity. This scarcity may be due to bad quality of water. Lately, there has been a growing concern that even if there is ample water to meet the needs of the people, much of it may be polluted by domestic and industrial wastes chemicals, pesticides and fertilizers used in agriculture, thus, making it hazardous for human use.

Question 3.
Describe some of the hydraulic structures that were built in ancient India.
Answer:
Hydraulic structures built in ancient India :

• In the first century B.C., Sringaverapura near Allahabad, had a sophisticated water harvesting system, channelling the flood water of the river Ganga.
• During the time of king Chandragupta Maurya, dams, lakes and irrigation systems were extensively built.
  Evidences of sophisticated irrigation works have also been found in Kalinga (Odisha), Nagarjunakonda (Andhra Pradesh), Bennur (Karnataka), Kolhapur (Maharashtra), etc.
• In the 11th century, Bhopal Lake, one of the largest artificial lakes of its time, was
  built.
• In the 14th century, the tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi was constructed by Sultan Iltutmish, for supplying water to Siri Fort area.

Question 4.
Examine the importance of multi-purpose projects. Give examples of major multipurpose projects.
Answer:
Multi-purpose projects are of great importance:
(i) These projects are meant to tackle various problems associated with river valleys in an integrated manner
(ii) These projects control floods, check soil erosion, provide water for drinking and irrigation purposes and generate electricity.
A few major multi-purpose projects are Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley, Hirakud, Chambal, Sardar Sarovar etc.

Question 5.
What is rainwater harvesting? Mention the principal objectives of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
Rainwater Harvesting: Rainwater harvesting is a technique of increasing the recharge of ground water by capturing and storing rain water, by constructing structures such as percolating pits, ponds, tanks and check dams, etc. Principal Objectives of rainwater harvesting:

The principal objectives of rainwater harvesting are as follows :

• To reduce run off of rain water into seas and oceans
• To improve the quantity and quality of ground water.
• To meet the ever-increasing demand for water.
• To avoid and control floods. ‘
• To reduce groundwater pollution.
• To increase ground water storage and raise the level of ground water.
• ‘To supplement requirement of water for domestic use during summer and long dry spells.

Question 6.
What is bamboo irrigation method?
OR
What do you know about the Bamboo drip Irrigation System?
Answer:
The bamboo irrigation method (System) is very popular in Meghalaya. It is about 200 year-old-system of tapping stream and spring water by using bamboo pipes. Bamboo pipes are used to divert perennial springs on the tops of hills to the lower reaches by gravitation. The channel section, made of bamboo, diverts water to the plant site, where it is distributed into several branches. If the pipes pass a road, they are taken high above the land on the tree branches. The last channel section enables water to be dropped near the roots of several plants. Thus, about 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe and gets transported over hundreds of metres.

Question 7.
What steps should be taken to conserve our water resources?
Answer:
We must check the fury of floods, more and more dams should be constructed so that extra water is stored which can later on be used for irrigating land, for increasing food production and for banishing famines.
Such rivers which cause floods should be linked with other rivers which usually have very little water in them.
The rainwater must be not allowed to flow into the sea. More and more tanks can be constructed which can be filled with water, before it flows into the sea and goes waste. Some scholars suggest that we should prepare our national water budget just as we prepare our finance budget.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the principal features of the following multi-purpose river valley projects:
Damodar Valley, Hirakud, Indra Gandhi Canal, Bhakra-Nangal.
Answer:
Damodar Valley:

• The project consists of a series of small dams on the tributaries of river Damodar. It has four small dams at Talaiya, Maithon, Pancheth and Mayurakshi.
• All the dams under this project are located in Jharkhand; but Durgapur barrage is in West Bengal.
• It serves Jharkhand and West Bengal through irrigation, flood-control, provision of hydro-electricity and navigation.
• It irrigates 5.15 lakh hectares of land and generates 1,181 MW. of electricity.

Hirakud Dam:

• It is the longest dam in India with a length of 25.8 km.
• It stores 8,100 million cubic metres of water.
• It is located on the river Mahanadi.
• It irrigates 7.5 lakh hectares of area, prevents floods and generates 270 MW of electricity, mainly for Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.

Indira Gandhi Canal Project:

• It is world’s largest irrigational canal, 649 km long.
• It is constructed on the river Beas by diverting the waters of river Beas and Ravi towards river Satluj from Harrike barrage.
• It irrigates 12.6 lakh hectares mainly in Ganganagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer districts of Rajasthan.

Bhakra-Nangal Dam:

• It is the highest gravity dam in the world, built between two hills, about 226 m high from the river bed.
• It is built on river Satluj, near village Bhakra in Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh.
• It serves jointly to cater Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh and Delhi.

Question 2.
What is a multi-purpose project? How can the multi-purpose projects become harmful for the country? Explain with reasons.
OR
Put your arguments against constructing big dams,
OR
Why in recent years, multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition?
OR
What are the reasons for the multi-purpose projects and large dams coming under great scrutiny and opposition?
OR
Write any four demerits of multi-purpose river projects.
Answer:
Meaning of Multi-purpose Project: A multi-purpose project or a river-valley project is such a scheme which serves a number of purposes simultaneously, such as, irrigation, flood control, generating hydro-electricity and tourism, e.g. Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley Project etc. Big dams have caused serious socio-economic problems.

Among these, the more important ones are as follows:
(i) In recent years, multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition for a variety of reasons. Regulating and damming of rivers affects their natural flow, causing poor sediment flow and excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir, resulting in rockier stream beds and poorer habitats for the rivers’ aquatic life.

(ii) Dams also fragment rivers, making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate, especially for spawning.

(iii) The reservoirs, that are created on the floodplains, also sub-merge the existing vegetation and soil, leading to its decomposition over a period of time.

(iv) Multi-purpose projects and large dams have also been the cause of many new social movements like the ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’ and the ‘Tehri Dam Andolan’. Resistance to these projects has primarily been due to the large-scale displacement of local communities. Local people often had to give up their land, livelihood, and their meagre access and control over resources for the greater good of the nation. But, they are not benefitted from these projects.

(v) Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences, like, salination of the soil. It has transformed the social landscape, i.e. increasing the social gap between the rich land owners and the landless poor.

(vi) The dams that were constructed to control floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. Moreover, the big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive rainfall.

(vii) The floods have not only devastated life and property but also caused extensive soil erosion.

Question
On an outline map of India show the major rivers and dams of India.
Answer: