Class 9

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Drainage Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 3 Drainage

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Geography Drainage TextBook Questions and Answers

Geography Chapter 3 Drainage Question Answer HBSE 9th Class Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:
(i) Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns resembling the branches of a tree?
(a) Radial
(b) Dendritic
(c) Centrifugal
(d) Trellis
Answer:
(b) Dendritic

(ii) In which of the following states is the Wular lake located?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Jammu&Kashmir
Answer:
(d) Jammu&Kashmir

(iii) The river Narmada has its source at:
(a) Satpura
(b) Brahmagir
(c) Amarkantak
(d) Slopes of the Western Ghats
Answer:
(c) Amarkantak

(iv) Which one of the following lakes is a saltwater lake?
(a) Sambhar
(b) Dal
(c) Wular
(d) Gobind Sagar
Answer:
(a) Sambhar

(v) Which one of the following is the longest river of Peninsular India?
(a) Narmada
(b) Amravati
(c) the Godavari
(d) Mahanadi
Answer:
(c) the Godavari

(vi) Which among the following rivers flow through a rift valley?
(a) Damodar
(b) Tungabhadra
(c) Krishna
(d) Tapi
Answer:
(d) Tapi

Class 9 Social Science Drainage HBSE Question 2.
Answer the following questions:
(i) What is meant by a water divide? Give an example.
Answer:
The upland that separates two drainages, basins is called the water divide. Examples: any elevated area, the mountain.

(ii) Which is the largest river basin in India?
Answer:
The Ganga Basin.

(iii) Where do the rivers Indus and the Ganga have their origin?
Answer:
Mansarovar Lake.

(iv) Name the two headstreams of the Ganga. Where do they unite to form the Ganga?
Answer:
The two headstreams Of tire Ganga are the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi. They unite at Devprayag to form the Ganga.

(v) Why does the Brahmaputra, in its Tibetan part have less silt, despite a longer course?
Answer:
Despite a longer course, the Brahmaputra, in its Tibetan part have- less silt because it receives very little volume of water here.

(vi) Which two peninsular rivers flow through trough? What features do they form while entering the sea?
Answer:
1. The Narmada and
2. The Tapi are the two peninsular rivers that flow.

through trough. On their way to the sea, they create many picturesque locations. The ‘Marble rocks’ and the ‘Dhualdhar falls’ constitute a remarkable feature.

(vii) State some economic benefits of rivers and lakes.
Answer:
The five economic benefits of rivers and lakes Can be stated as under:
1. Water from lakes and rivers helps develop hydel power.
2. They help develop the tourism industry.
3. They help in providing irrigation for agriculture.
4. They provide the water necessary for human life.
5. For industries and their development, water becomes a raw material, example it provides coolant

Class 9th Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer HBSE Question 3.
Below are given names of a few lakes of India. Group them under two categories-natural and man-made.
(a)Wular
(b) Dal
(c) Nainital
(d) Bhimtal
(e) Gobind Sagar
(f) Loktal
(g) Barapanl
(h) Chilka
(i) Sambhar
(j) Rana Prtap Sagar
(k) Ñzam Sagar
(l) Pulicat
(m) Nagarl una Sagar
(n) Hirakund
Answer:
Natural:
1. Wular
2. Dai
3. Nainital
4. Bhiniial
5. Sambhar
6. Pulicat
7. Loktal
8. Chilka
9. Barapani

Man-made:
1. Gobind Sagar
2. Rana Pratap Sagar
3. Nizam Sagar
4. Nagarjun Sagar
5. Hirakud.

Drainage Chapter HBSE 9th Class Question 4.
Discuss die significant differences between die Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
The Himalayan Rivers:
1. These are the rivers that rise in the snow-covered mountains as such they flow throughout the year.
2. The Himalayan rivers flow in leveled Northern plains. Hence these are more useful in navigation and irrigation.
3. These rivers bring fertile alluvium with them.
4. Canals can be easily dug to use the water of these rivers for irrigation.

The Peninsular Rivers:
1. These rivers rise from the mountains in the Deccan which are not snow-covered.
2. These rivers flow On the uneven rocky surfaces. Hence these are not very suitable for navigation or irrigation.
3. These do not bring enough alluvium with them. The currents in these rivers are so swift that the deposition activity, is negligible.
4. The banks of these rivers are high and the terrain also rocky. Hence in these rivers canals cannot be dug.

Question 5.
Compare the east flowing and the west-flowing rivers of the peninsular plateau.
Answer:
East Flowing Rivers:
1. The east-flowing rivers move to-wards the east- direction.
2. The Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri are the east flowing rivers of peninsular India while Yamuna and Ganga also move eastward in northern India.
3. These rivers fall into the Bay of Bengal.
4. Most of these rivers make deltas at their mouth.
5. The east-flowing rivers have a developed tributary system.
6. The east-flowing rivers generally do not flow through very deep channels.

West flowing Rivers:
1. The west-flowing rivers move in the west direction.
2. Narmada and Tapi are the important west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India. Indus is the west-flowing river of northern India.
3. These rivers fall in the Arabian sea.
4. These rivers enter the sea through estuaries. These tributaries are comparatively large in size.
5. The west-flowing rivers are devoid of a developed tributary system. These tributaries are small in size.
6. The west-flowing rivers flow in throughout or a funnel like narrow but deep channels.

Question 6.
Why are rivers important for the country’s economy?
Answer:
Rivers provide the most productive agricultural lands in the country. The Ganga, the Kaveri, and other deltas have traditionally been rice-growing areas. Irrigation from rivers has been the backbone of the development of Indian agriculture. Industrial development has flourished along rivers as many industrial processes rely on water as raw material, as a coolant, and for the generation of hydroelectricity. The rivers provide primary channels of inland transportation which are necessary for the country’s economy.

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Geography Drainage Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Where trom the Brahmaputra originates?
Answer:
From Tibet.

Question 2.
In which direction does the Brahmaputra flow?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra flows in an eastward direction parallel to the Himalayas.

Question 3.
Whaf does the Brahmaputra do in Namcha Barwa?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra reaching Namcha Barwa takes a U-tum and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 4.
What is a river basin?
Answer:
A river basin is meant by the area which is drained by a single river system. This an also known as a drainage basin.

Question 5.
Name two saltwater lakes on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
1. The Chilka-in Orissa.
2. The Pulicat-in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
In which states does the Brahmaputra flow in India?
Answer:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Assam.

Question 7.
By which name the Brahmaputra is known in Tibet?
Answer:
Tsangpo.

Question 8.
Name the city located on the water divide between the Indus and Ganga.
Answer:
Ambatal

Question 9.
By which name the mainstream of Ganga is known in Bangladesh?
Answer:
The Padma.

Question 10.
When is the Ganga known as Tainuna?
Answer:
In Bangladesh whori the Brahmaputra joins the Ganga, it is known as Jamuna.

Question 11.
Where does the Jhelum fall into the Indus?
Answer:
A little over Mithankot.

Question 12.
What is meant by the dendritic pattern of streams?
Answer:
The dendritic pattern of streams indicates the streams resemble like the branches of a tree.

Question 13.
What is meant by the trellis 1
Answer:
Trellis indicates the situation where the tributaries join the mainstream at the right angles.

Question 14.
What is meant by a braided stream?
Answer:
The braided stream is a channel of a stream that has a large island within it.

Question 15.
What is meant by island drainage?
Answer:
Island drainage refers to die rivers not reaching an ocean. Instead, they fall into a sea or lake within the land.

Question 16.
From which glacier does the Yamuna originate?
Answer:
Yamunotri.

Question 17.
Name the largest peninsular river of India.
Answer:
The Godavari.

Question 18.
Name the tributaries of die river Krishana.
Answer:
1. The Tungabhadra
2. The Koyna,
3. The Ghatprabha
4. The Musi
5. The Bhima.

Question 19.
Name the states which fall, into the drainage basin of the Narmada
Answer:
1. Maharashtra
2. Karnataka
3. Andhra Pradesh.

Question 20.
Which river originates from the Brahmagir range of the Western Ghats?
Answer:
The Kaveri.

Question 21.
Why are the peninsular rivers seasonal?
Answer:
They are seasonal because their flow depends on due rainfall.

The Himalayan and the Peninsular Rivers.
Himalayan Rivers

Peninsular Rivers

Question 21.
Point out the prominent features of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.
Answer:
1. It is the largest delta of die world.
2. It is one of the most fertile areas of the world.
3. It is a triangular-shaped area.
4. It is a well-watered area.
5. The lower part of this delta is marshy.
6. Mangroves are found only in this place of the whole of India.

Question 22.
How Would you differentiate between a glacier and a river?
Answer:

The Glacier
1. Glaciers are in solid form.
2. Glaciers look like a mountain of ice.
3. Glaciers move very slowly.
4. The movement of a glacier is not discernible.

The River:
1. Rivers are in liquid form.
2. Rivers may be seen flowing.
3. Rivers move with a greater speed.
4. The movement of a river is easily discernible.

Question 23.
How the lakes are formed?
Answer:
1. Lakes are formed in the mountainous area when the glaciers block the valleys and a large amount of water is collected in that place.
2. The violent movements of the earth, like earthquakes, also create lakes when the depressions formed on the crust of the earth are filled with rainwater.
3. Human beings also form lakes, for various purposes.

Question 24.
What is meant by the Indus water treaty?
Answer:
Indus water treaty is a treaty between India and Pakistan. This treaty is about the- sharing of the waters of the Indus system. According to this treaty, India can use only 20% of the total of water carried by the Indus river system.

Question 25.
Name the states through which the river Mahanadi flows.
Answer:
The river Mahanadi flows through three states of India:
1. It originates in Chattisgarh
2. If falls in the Bay of, Bengal in Orissa.
3. Hence it flows through Chattisgarh and Orissa Only.

Question 26.
Why are the rivers considered the lifelines of human civilization?
Answer:
Rivers are undoubtedly the lifelines of human civilization. All the early: civilizations whether in India, Mesopotamia, Egypt or in China, flourished in the river valleys. The Harappan culture of India flourished in the Indus valley. The Egyptian civilization flourished in the Nile valley and the Mesopotamian in the valleys of the Tigris and Euphrates. It is a well-known fact that rivers provide us with water. Without water, one can not imagine life. Hence it is a very natural tendency to stay and live by the sides of the river and their nearby areas. So that water heed for drinking and cultivation etc, could be fulfilled easily.

Question 27.
What do you mean by the drainage?
Answer:
Drainage is an outcome of the evolutionary process of the broad relief features of the country. It is meant by the river system of an area.

Question 28.
Answer the following questions:
(i) Three major rivers Originating beyond the Himalayas.
(i) The source area of these rivers.
(iii) Point out the feature formed by these rivers.
Answer:
(i) Three major rivers originating beyond tire Himalayas are:
1. The Indus
2. The Satluj
3. The Brahmputra
(ii) The source of the above rivers is Mansarovar near the Kailash.
(iii) Gorges, Canyons, U-shaped valleys

Question 29.
Write a few lines on the Ganga.
Answer:
The Ganga river originates from the Gangotri glacier in the Himalayas. After crossing through India and Bangladesh, it falls in the Bay of Bengal. It is of nearly 2500 km. length. The main tribu taries of Ganga are the Yamuna, Gomut, Ghagra, gandak and Kosi. The southern tributaries of the Ganga are Son. Chambel, Betwa and Kosi.

Question 30.
Which are the important peninsular rivers of India?
Or
Give a brief account of the different peninsular rivers of India.
Answer:
The Narmada:
If rises from Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh. It flows west-southward in a trough for a distance about 1300 km. The Narmada gorge in the marble rocks of Madhya Pradesh is very famous for its beauty.

The Tapi:
It rises from the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows in a trough parallel to the Narmada. However, it is smaller in size than that of the Narmada:

The Godavari:
It is also known as the Dakshin Ganga and Vridha Ganga. It is the largest among the peninsular rivers of India. It rises in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. Its length is about 15000 km. It drains into the Bay of Bengal.

The Mahanadi:
It rises ill Chattisgarh and flows through Orissa and reaches the Bay of Bengal.

The Krishna:
It rises from the spring near Mahabaleshwar. If flows for nearly about 1400 km. Its drainage basin is shared by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

The Kaveri:
It rises in the Brahmagir ranges of the Western Ghats. If flows over 800 km. Near Kaveripatnam, it reaches the Bay of Bengal.

Question 31.
What is the reason of the water pollution? How the pollution level can be reduced?
Or
Suggest some measures to reduce the pollution of water.
Answer:
Water pollution indicates that the water is not pure and safe for health. Today, many factors are causing water pollution; It is very dangerous for health as well as for tire environment. The large number of the dead fishes found in the Yamuna at Agra proved it.’ Factories, especially the chemical industries, paper mills, sugar mills, tanneries etc are causing the water to be polluted. The disposal of sewage of urban areas into the rivers also leads to this pollution. As for example, the Najafgarh Nala in Delhi may be taken.

Question 32.
What is meant by a lake? Introduce some of the important lakes of India.
Or
How are the lakes useful for us?
Or
Point out the importance of lakes.
Answer:
A large low-lying depression in the earth filled with water is called a lake. A lake may be natural or artificial that is, human-made Lakes may be in the hill areas as well as in the plain. Importance of the Lakes
1. Lakes help us in drainage.
2. These are the beauties attracting tourists.
3. These are important for nature and protecting natural beauty.
4. Lakes are also important for the economy of a country.
5. They are used for boating and fishing.
6. They provide opportunities for recreation.
Reduction in water (low due to ever-increasing abstraction of water for irrigation from the river Ganga through canals.

Question 33.
Point out the achievements of the Ganga Action Plan.
Answer:
1. Mainly 260 schemes have been launched in the Ganga Action Plan.
2. Nearly 45 of them have been completed with positive results.
3. Trees have been planted in badly, eroded portions to check the dams reputed in the upper reaches of the river.
4. The interception and diversion of several major drains carrying sewage and industrial wastes to the river Ganga have been completed in several cities like Varanasi Kanpur and Patna.
5. It has reduced the pollution level substantially.
6. Turtles and the Gangetic dolphins which had disappeared for several years, reappeared in Varanasi and other places.,
7. All of the above points indicate the recovery of the health of the Ganga.
Hence though the Ganga Action Plan has miles to go; it has no doubt achieved several landmark achievements.

Question 34.
Give an account of the drainage of the surface water of India.
Answer:
1. Two third of the total surface water of India drains into the Bay of Bengal.
2. About 20% of the surface water drains into the Arabian Sea.
3. A little less than 10% drain to form part of the inland drainage of the Rajasthan desert and Aksai Chain.
4. Nearly 1% drains to the Andaman Sea through the tributaries of the Irrawaddy in- Myanmar.

Question 35.
Write a detailed note on the Indus River System.
Answer:
The river Indus rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar. Flowing west, it enters India in the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir through a picturesque gorge. Several tributaries, the Zaskar, the Shyok and the Huzana, join it in this region. It flows through Baltistan and Gilgit and emerges from the mountains at Attack.

The famous five rivers of Punjab-the Satluj; the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab, and the Jhelum-enter.the Indus a little above Mithankol in Pakistan. Beyond this, the Indus flows southwards eventually reaching the Arabian Sea, east of Karachi. The total length of the river is about 2900Jem, ranking it among the longest rivers of the world. A little over a third of the Indus basin is located in India in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Punjab and the rest is in Pakistan.

Question 36.
What do you know about the Brahmaputra rivers System?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet east of Mansarovar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj. In Tibet, it is called the Tscmgpo. It is slightly longer than the Indus, and most of its course lies outside India..It flows eastwards parallel to the Himalayas to its south. On reaching the mountain peak the Namcha Barwa (7757 m), it takes a ‘U’ turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge.

Here it is called the Dihang and it is joined by the Dibang, the Lohit the Kenula and many other tributaries to form the Brahmaputra in Assam. In Tibet the river carries a smaller volume of water and less silt as if is a comparatively dry area. In India it passes through a region, which receives a huge amount of rainfall. As a result, the river carries a large volume of water and a considerable amount of silt. The Brahmaputra has a braided channel in its entire length in Assam, with many riverine islands.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before the incorrect sentences.
(i) Of the 260 schemes of the Ganga Action plan, 45 have been completed with a positive result
(ii) The Kaveri raises from Amarkantak,
(iii) India has comparatively few natural lakes.
(iv) Over two-thirds of the surface water of India drains into the Bay of Bengal.
(v) Aksai Chin is in Uttaranchal.
(vi) The Krishana is famous as the Vridha Ganga.
(vii) Chilka lake is a large lagoon.
(viii) The rising pollution of Ganga became a cause of concern during the 1970 and 1980s.
Answer:
(i) ✓
(ii) ✗
(iii)✓
(iv) ✓
(v) ✗
(vi)✗
(vii) ✓
(viii) ✓

Question 2.
Fill in the balnks with suitable words.
(i) The Mahanadi rises from ………….
(ii) The Krisha flows for about ……………. Km.
(iii) Where the sweet water mixes with the salt water of the ocean is known as ……………
(iv) The ………….. basin is shared by Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
(v) Aksai chin is in ………..
Answer:
(i) Chattisgarh
(ii) 1400
(iii) estuaries
(iv) Kaveri
(v) Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 3.
Match the following two lists.

Answer:

Question 4.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

The river Indus rise from the following:
(a) Mansa rover
(b) Gangotri
(c) Nasik
(d) Mahabaleswar.
Answer:
(a) Mansa rover

(ii) The Ganga is also known as:
(a) Krishana
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Narmada
(d) Kaveri.
Answer:
(b) Bhagirathi

(iii) The following is a peninsular river
(a) The Ganga
(b) The Tapi
(c) The Indus
(d) TheBrahmpaputra
Answer:
(b) The Tapi

(iv) The following is the largest peninsular river:
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Krishna
(c) Godawari
(d) Narmada.
Answer:
(c) Godawari

(v) The following is the range from where the river Tapi rises:
(a) Satpura
(b) Aravalli
(c) Vindhya
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Satpura

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Geography Physical Features of India TextBook Questions and Answers

Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features Of India Notes HBSE Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alterhatives given below:
(i) A landmark bounded by sea on three sides is regerred to as
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) name of the above
Answer:
(b) Island

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as
(a) Himachal
(b) Uttranchal
(c) Puryanchal
(d) name of the above
Answer:
(c) Puryanchal

(iii) The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as
(a) Coromandal
(b) Konkan
(c) Kannad
(d) Northern Circus
Answer:
(b) Konkan

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is
(a) Anai Mudi
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Khasi.
Answer:
(d) Khasi.

Physical Features Of Haryana HBSE 9th Class Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly:

(i) What are tectonic plates?
Answer:
Tectonics plates are those plates which form the crust of the earth. They are seven major “and some minor plates.

(ii) Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Answer:
Parts of Asia/Australia, Africa and South America.,

(iii) What is the bhabar?
Answer:
The narrow belt comprising of the pebbled beds parallel to slope of the river is callted bhabar.

(iv) Name the three major divisions of the Himalaya from north to south.
Answer:
1. The inner Himalayas (Himadri)-average altitude-6000m (aprox)
2. The middle Himalayas (Himachal)-average altitude-5000 m (aprox)
3. The outer Himalayas (Shivalik)- average altitude-1000m (aprox).

(v) Which plateau lies between theAravali and the Vaidhya ranges.
Answer:
The plateau which lies between the Aravali and the Vindhayan ranges is known the Central Highlands.

(vi) Name the island group of India having coral origin.
Answer:
Lakshdweep island groups.

Chapter 2 Physical Features Of India HBSE 9th Class Question 3.
Distinguish between:
(i) Converging and diverging tectonic plates.
Answer:
(a) Those plates which come towards each other are converging tectonic plates, those which move away from each other are called the diverging tectonics plates.
(b) Converging tectonics plates may either collide or crumble; diverging tectonics plates do not collide.
(c) Converging technics plates move harizontally past each other while the diverging plates do not do so.
(d) The movement of convering tectonics plates have, over the million years, changed the position of the continents; while the diverging tectonics plates do not have such features,

(ii) Bhangar and Khadar.
Answer:
Bhangar:
1. It belongs to the category of old alluvium soil.
2. It contains Kakar nodules with calcium carbonates.
3. It is comparatively less fertile.

Khadar:
1. It is the new Category of alluvium soil.
2. It is pure soil.
3. It is more fertile.

(ii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
Answer:
Western Ghats Eastern Ghats:
1. These areSituated on the west coast of India.
1. These are situated on the east coast of India.
2. These consists Sahyadri, Nilgiri, Annamali and. the Cardamom.
2. These consist of discontinuously low hills.
3, The height of the Western Ghats goes on increasing towards the south.

Physical Features Of India Solutions HBSE 9th Class Question 4.
Describe how the Himalayas are formed.
Answer:
The Himalayas are not very old mountains. Their origin is, in fact, comparatively more recent. Before the Himalayas originated, there was the sea Tethys which slowly got filled by the silt brought by different rivers. When their mountains were formed due to the internal activities of the earth, the different layers and folds, maintained their identity.

Question 5.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayas region with that of the Peninsular plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic features of India are:

• The Himalayan Mountains
• The Northern Plains
• The Peninsular Plateau
• The coastal Plains
• The Islands

The relief features of the Himalayan region and the Peninsular Plateau can be contrasted in relation to their characteristics. The land of India displays great physical contrasts. Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau constitutes one of the ancient landmasses on the earth’s surface. It is also the most stable land block. The Himalayas and the other mountains of the North and the Plains lying between them and the Deccan Plateau display the most recent developments.

Tectonically, they form of unstable zones. Over the millions of years, the denudational processes have made these contrasts even sharper. In sharp contrast to the very .youthful, topography with sheer, lofty peaks, and steep-sided valleys of the mountains, composed of sedimentary and metamorphic rocks, the Northern Plains composed of alluvium, represent one of the world’s largest deposition surfaces. In the south the Peninsular plateau composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks depict a senile topography dominated by gently rising ridges and wide valleys. Howsoever, diverse, there exists a complementarity between these land features.

Question 6.
Give an account of the Northern Plains of India
Answer:
The Northern plains of India have a rich soil cover, favourable climate and adequate water supply to support agriculture. These are an area with almost a level plain with little variation in relief. In this area agriculture gets support from the favourable climate artd adequate water supply. The Himalayan rivers while flowing down the slopes of the mountain form alluvial fans reaching the plains. The Northern plain of India extends between the mouths of the Indus and the Ganga-Brahmaputra.

It covers a distance of nearly about 3200 km: its width varies between 300-150 km. This area gets however towards the east. At Hard war the Ganga enters the Northern Plains. On its way to the sea, it is joined by a number of. tributaries both from the north and south. The Ganga atter reaching West Bengal, turns south. The Sunderban delta of Northern India is formed by the Ganga and die the Brahmaputra. On the basis of the difference in the relief, the Northern plain is divided mainly into four parts: 1 Bhabar, 2. Tarai, 3. Bhangar, 4. Khadar.

Question 7.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) The Indian Desert
(ii) The Central Highlands
(iii) The Island groups of India
Answer:
(i) The Indian Desert lies towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills. It is a sandy plain covered with sand dimes. This region receives very low rainfall below 150 mm per year. It has arid climate with low vegetation cover.

(ii) The Central Highlands.
Answer:
The Central Highlands are the important parts of the Peninsular Plateau. The Central Highlands are mainly made of hard igneous rocks. This part is occupied by the Aravalli range. The Central Highlands,, running in a southwest-northeast direction from Gujrat to Delhi. The Thar Desert lies to the west of this part. The southern boundary of the Central Highlands is demarcated by the Vindhya range. The eastern boundary of this area extends to the Kashmir hills. The middle section of the Central Highlands falls between the valley of Narmada and the Son.

(iii) The Island groups of India.
Answer:
The Island groups of India are of different origin. In India, there are two Island groups:
1. The Lakshadweep.
2. The Andaman and Nicobar.

The Lakshadweep consists of many small islands Which, lie opposite the coast of Kerala in the Arabian Sea. The southernmost island of this group is very close to the Maldives. The islands of this group are formed of coral deposits. On the other hand, the Andaman and Nicobar islands are bigger is size. They are more numerous and scattered. Andaman has about 200 islands while the Nicobar group contains 19 islands. These islands are spread over 350 km. However, only a few of them spread over 350 km. These island groups are of great strategic importance for the country.

Map Skills:
On the outline map of India, show the following
(i) Mountain and hill ranges: the Karakoram, the Zaskar the Patkai Bum, the Jaintia, the Vindhya range, the Aravali and the Cardamom hills.
(ii) Peaks: K2, Kunchanjunga, Nanga Porbat, and the Anai MudL
(iii) Plateaus: Chhotanagar and Malwa
(iv) The Indian Desert, Western Ghats, Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Geography Physical Features of India Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the name of the highest range of the Himalayas?
Answer:
Himadri.

Question 2.
What is the average altitude of the Himalayas?
Answer:
4000 metres.

Question 3.
What is the length of the Himalayas?
Answer:
Nearly 2500 km.

Question 4.
Point out the height of the highest peak of the world.
Answer:
The highest peak of the world is Mount Everest. Its height is 8848 mts.

Question 5.
What is meant by an I-shaped valley?
Answer:
An I-shaped valley is meant by a valley having vertical walls on either sides.

Question 6.
Name the state where Sahyadri is located.
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 7.
What do you know about Ghilka?
Answer:
Chilka is one of the freshwater lagoons of the eastern coastal plain of India.

Question 8.
By which name Dihang is famous?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra.

Question 9.
What is a bar?
Answer:
It is a deposit of sand or mud in a river channel.

Question 10.
Which hills are comprised by the. Purvachal?
Answer:
The Patkai Bum, The Naga hills, The Mizo hills.

Question 11.
How the alluvial fans are formed?
Answer:
The alluvial fans are formed by the Himalayan rivers which flow down the slopes of the mountains and reach the plains.

Question 12.
What is the famous name of Tsangpo?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra.

Question 13.
Point out the characteristics of I-shaped valleys.
Answer:
I-shaped valleys have steep vertical’ walls on either side of the river.

Question 14.
In how many directions the Himalayas are divided into east-west directions?
Answer:
Four.

Question 15.
What is the height of Nanda Devi?
Answer:
7817 mtrs.

Question 16.
Where is the Satpura range located?
Answer:
In 1. Madhya Pradesh and in 2. G.ujrat.

Question 17.
Where is Sh’iwalik?
Answer:
In 1. Himachal Pradesh and in 2. Uttaranchal.

Question 18.
In which coast is cochin situated?
Answer:
Malabar.

Question 19.
Where is New Moor Island?
Answer:
In the Bay of Bengal.

Question 20.
To which physiographic division of India does the Aravalli belong?
Answer:
To the Mountainous Range.

Question 21.
Which two forces are responsible for shaping the present landform features of India?
Answer:
The two forces, mainly responsible for shaping the present landform features of India are the following:
1. Internal movements below the earth’s crust.
2. External forces operating on the surface of the earth.

Question 22.
What are tectonic plates?
Answer:
Tectonic plates are also known as the lithospheric plates*. These are the plates which are resulted from the internal heat of the earth and the currents of the semi-molten rocks which begin to move towards the crust and tear it apart dividing into large plates. These are the seven major tectonic plates:
1. South America.
2. North America,
3. Eurasian
4. Antarctica
5. Pacific
6. Indo- Australian
7. Africa.

Question 23.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwanaland?
Answer:
The continents of today which were part of Ganwanaland are the following:
1. South America
2. Africa
3. Australia,
4. Antarctica
5. Parts of Asia including India.

Question 24.
What is the ‘Bhaba.r’?
Answer:
Bhabar is one of the most important types of Indian relief. In fact, a narrow belt covered with pebbles lies along the foot of the Shiyaliks from the Indus to the Tista. These are laid down by numerous streams descending the slope of the river bed. This belt is about 80 to 16 km in width and is known as the ‘Bhabar’.

Question 25.
Why is the peninsular massif considered the oldest landmass?
Answer:
The peninsular massif is considered the oldest landmass because, it is, geologically, one of the ancient landmasses on the earth’s surface. It was once a part of the Gondwanaland till its surface and drifting, laying somewhere near the south pole along with Australia, South Africa and South America.

Question 26.
How are the Himadri Himalayas different from the Himachal Himalayas?
Answer:
The difference between the Himadri Himalayas and the Himachal Himalayas can’ be stated as under: Himachal Himalayas
1. This range of the Himalayas is the middle range of the Himalayas.
2. It is also known as the middle Himalayas.
3. Its average altitude is between 3700 and 4500 metres.
4. It contains all the important hill stations, for example: Dharamsala, Dalhousie, and Shimla.

Question 27.
Distinguish between Island group of the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian See.
Answer:

Island and Groups of the y of Bengal:
1. The Andaman and Nicobar group of islands .lay in the Bay of Bengal.
2. This group of islands consists of as many as 200 islands spread Over an area of 350 km.
3. The islands are large and numerous.
4. The islands form a lush green, densely forested and pictures of the archipelago.

Island Groups of the ArabianSea:
1. The. Lakshadweep group of islands lay in the Arabian Sea.
2. This group- of islands consists of small coral islands. These are 36 in number spread over to a mere 32 sq kms.
3. These islands are small and less numerous.
4. The islands are characterised by a’great diversity in terms of flora and fauna.

Question 28.
Give reasons:
(i) Siwaliks are prone to landslides.
(ii) Eastern coastal plains are more fertile.
Answer:
(i) As the Siwaliks are made of unconsolidated sediments, they are prone to landslides. .
(ii) As the eastern coastal plains have thick- alluvial deposits in the delta tracks, they are relatively more fertile.

Question 29.
Explain the characteristic features of the Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The following are the characteristic features of the Peninsular plateau:

• It is a table land composed of the old crystalline ignores and metamorphic rocks.
• It is the oldest landmass, formed due to the .breaking and drafting of the Gondwanaland.
• It represents a senile topography charactersied by broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills.
• divided into two broad divisions

Question 30.
How are the Arbian sea formed?
Answer:
During the formation: of the Himalayas, an extensive volcanic eruption took place iij the north-western part of the plateau. This part was subsided, the Indian Ocean advanced to occupy- this depression And it resulted into the formation of the Arabiansea.

Question 31.
Write short notes on the following;
(i) The Middle Himalayas.
Answer:
The MiddleHimalaya is,also Rnwon as Himachal. It lies to the southof the Himadri,
It extends oyer an average width of 50 km and have an altitude of 3700-4500 mtrs. The main ranges of the MiddleHimalaya are:
1. The Pir Panjal
2. The Dhaoladhar
3. The Mahabharat.

The Middle Himalaya is the part of Himalaya which contains all the important hills stations like:
1. Dharmashala
2. Dolhousie
3. Shimla
4. Mussorie
5. Darjeeling etc.

Question 32.
Distinguish between
(i) A Delta and Estuary.
(ii) A Tributary and A Distributary
Answer:
(i) A Delta and Estuary
1. It is generally a triangular land form, formed by the deposition of segments at the inouth of river.
2. It is always formed by a river.
3. A delta resembles the Greek letter A.

A Delta An Estuary
1. It is a narrow deep valley at the mouth of a river
2. It is formed where the currents and tides are strong.
3. This is formed when the sediments are automatically removed before they are depositied. Hence the mouth of the river remains clear.

(ii) A tributary and a distributary:
A Tributary:
1. It is a river or a stream joining a larger river.
2. It joins the main river by adding waters from its basin.
3. Yamuna is an example of a tributary of Ganga.
4. It is responsible for the increase in the volume of water of the main river.

A Distributary:
1. It is the channel which is formed by a river at its mouth.
2. It carries away a part of the water from the main river.
3. Ganga while entering the .Bay of Bengal forms’ many distributaries.
4. It decreases the volume of water of the main river.

Question 33.
Describe how the Himalayas were formed.
Answer:
Formation of the Himalayas: The Indo-Australian plate which was separated from the Gondwanaland cfrifted slowly towards north. It collided with the much.larger Eurasian plate in the northern hemisphere approximately 5 crores of years ago. The northern edge of the Indo-Australian plate was.pushed beneath the Eurasian plate. Under the impact of this collision, the sedimentary rocks of the enclosed ocean were folded to form the mountain system of central Asia including the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Differentiate between the plateau and the plain.
Answer:
Plateau is an elevated land which has a relatively extensive and levelled surface. A plateau is generally bound by deep slopes on one or more sides. The plateau rises abruptly. Plateau is comparatively cooller than the plains. A plateau is uneven and rocky.

Plain:
It is an area which is flat and Ibw-lying. This area generally does not go above 300 metres from the sea level.

Question 35.
Point out some of the main features of the Ganga-B rahmap utra Delta.
Answer:
1. Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta is the largest delta in the world.
2. It is obviously a well-watered delta.
3. It is the most fertile delta of the world.
4. The lower part of this delta has become marshy owing to the free mingling of river and sea waters by the high and low tides.

Question 36.
Write down the main features, of the Ganga Basin.
Answer:
1. The Ganga Basin is the largest part, of tire Great Northern Plain.
2. The Ganga Basin lies to the south of the Himalayas.
3. The Ganga Basin extends from Ambala to Sunder ban.
4. It is nearly 1800 Km. long.
5. A large number of perennial rivers flow through this plain.
6. These rivers are very useful in irrigation.
7. It provides a large scope for generating hydel power.

Question 37.
Do you agree that the physiographic divisions of India are complementary. to each other?
Answer:
India is a vast country with lots of variety. These varieties are also seen in the physiographical divisions of India. These diversities and divisions are, however, complementary to each other.

For example, all the three major divisions:
1. The Great Mountain’ Wall of the North
2. The Northern Plains
3. The Great Peninsular Plateau, are complementary to each other.

The Northern Mountains are the major source pf water. On the other hand, the Peninsula has provided the stable block which went a long way in building the Northern plains and the Mountains. The Northern plains which provide fertile sites, get fertility from the Himalayan rivers. The- peninsular plateau is also of equal importance. The western ghats of this part play important role in monsoon rain.

Question 38.
The Himalayas are of great importance to India, Discuss.
Answer:
The Himalayas are no doubt of great importance for India in physical as well as in historical aspects. Physiographical Importance: The Himalayas are the lofty and impassable natural barriers on the northern border of India. The Himalayas act like a natural wall keeping the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains Safe from the cold bleak winds from the North. The Himalayas provide us the water sources like the Ganga flowing throughout the year.

The Himalayas also check the rain-bearing monsoon winds from the Indian Ocean which would otherwise blow across the north. The Himalayas cause the monsoon winds to shower on the valleys and the plains to their south. By this the Himalayas make the Indo-Gangetic plain the most fertile and productive plain in the world.

Natural Beauty:
The Himalayan peaks are snow-coveted throughout the year. As such they provide attractive natural spots inviting tourists from all over the world.

Historical Importance:
In ancient times the Hitnalayas also, stood as a firm security guard providing safety to the Indian parts from the invading hoards from the North.

Question 39.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India?
Answer:
The major physiographic: divisions 6f Indiaarethe following

1. The Great Himalayan Mountains: These folded mountains extend from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh in northern India. The and thfe,, width varies from 230-400 km. The Himalayas are further divided into three

(a) is the northernmost range of the Himalayas. This range is also known as Great Himalaya or Inner Himalaya. The. average altitude of this range in about 6000 metres. This range contains all the prominent peaks including Mount Everest, the highest peak in the world.

(b) Himachal: It is the middle Himalaya extended over an average width of 50 km and have an altitude of 3700 to 4500 metres. Pir Panjal, Dholadhar, and Mahabharat ranges are the parts of this group. All the important hill stations of North India like Dharmashala, Dalhousie, Shimla, and Darjeeling are located on this range.

(c) Shivalik: This is also known as Outer Himalaya. These ranges extend over the width of 10-50 km and have an altitude between 900 and 1100 metres.

2. The Northern Plains: It is almost a level plain with little variation in relief. The river valley civilizations of the Indus and the Ganga flourished in the region as they were based on the cultivation of crops. This part of the country is almost a level plain with little variation in relief. This part of the plain area extends between the mouths of the Indus and the Ganga-Brahmaputra covering a distance of about 3200 km.

3. The Peninsular Plateau: This is the oldest part of the Country. This is a triangular region with its base towards the Northern plains, between the Delhi ridge and Kajmahal Hills. This part has a general deviation of about 600-900 metres.

This part is again sub-divided into two parts:
1. The Central Highlands
2. The Deccan Plateau.
4. The Coastal Plains: This part is divided into the eastern and the western coastal plains. The western coastal plain stretches from Gujrat to Kerala.
5. The Islands: The Indian island groups are of different origins. The island of Lakshadweep group are formed of coral deposits. The Andaman Nicobar islands are bigger in size. They are more numerous and scattered.

Question 40.
Point out the general characteristics of the great Northern Plain:
Or
Describe the main features of the Northern Plain.
Answer:
1. The great Northern Plain extends from the Punjab Plain in the west to the Brahmaputra Valley in the east.
2. This plain lies to the south of the Himalayas.
3. This plain possesses the alluvial deposites of the Ganga, Indus and the Satluj.
4. The rivers flowing in this region are perennial.
5. The average of this plain is less than 300 metres above sea-level.
6. The largest part or this area is formed by the Ganga
7. This region has rich alluvial soil and abundant Water supply. The means of livelihood are easily available here.
8. The density of the population is the highest in this region.
9. The other part of the great Northern plain is formed by the Punjab plain.
10. The eastern part of the great-northern plain.
11. In the southeastern side of the Northern plain lies the Ganga Brahmaputra Delta. It is the largest delta in the world.

Question 41.
Write a detailed note on the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively. Running
parallel to the western coast, the Western Ghats display great structural unity. They are continuous and can be crossed through passes only such as locations of Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. These passes provide passages to the rail and the roads. The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is 900-1600 metres as against 600 metres of the Eastern Ghats. The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahahadi Valley to the Nilgiris in the south.

The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. The Western Ghats cause orographic rain by blocking the rain-bearing moist winds along the western; slopes of the Ghats. The Western Ghats are known by different local names. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south.

The highest peaks include the Anai Mudi (2,695 metres) and the Doda Betta peak (2,633 metres). Mahendragiri (1,500 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the south east of the Eastern Ghats. All the rivers draining the eastern coastal plains have their sources in the Western Ghats.

Question 42.
Write a note on the Shiwaliks.
Answer:
The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the Siwaliks. They extend over a width of 10-50 Km and have an altitude varying between 900 and 1100 metres. These ranges are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the , main’ Himalayan ranges located farther north.

The Siwaliks form almost a continuous chain to the south of the Himachal from Jammu and Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh. Flat-bottomed strike valleys separate large portions of Siwaliks, at places. These valleys, covered with thick gravel and alluvium, are called, ‘duns’. The Dehra Dun, Kotli and Patli Duns are some of the dims.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before incorrect sentences.
(i) The Peninsular block may be subdivided into two parts.
(ii) Next to bhabar there is bhangar.
(iii) The Deccan plateau is situated between Delhi Ridge and Rajmahal Hills.
(iv) The Deccan plateau extends southward from the Satpura.
(v) The southern part of the Western Ghats is relatively smaller.
(vi) Atolls in Malayalam refer to die ring.
(vii) There are about 120 islands in the Andaman group.
(viii) Lagoons are saltwater lakes.
Answer:
(i) ✓
(ii) ✗
(iii) ✗
(iv) ✓
(v) ✗
(vi) ✓
(vii) ✗
(viii) ✓

Question 2.
Fill up the following blanks:
(i) Atolls are …………… or horseshoe-shaped coral reefs.
(ii) Rivers of the western coast from …………..
(iii) Nicobar group has ………….. islands.
(iv) The …………. coastal plain is comparatively much wider.
(v) The coast of southern Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is popularly known as ………….
Answer:
(i) circular
(ii) estuaries
(iii) 19
(iv) eastern
(v) Coromandal coast.

Question 3.
Match out the following two lists.

Answer:

Question 4.
Answer The following questions in yes or no
(i) The Mahanadi river flows through Gujrat.
(ii) The cost is one of the tributaries of the Ganga.
(iii) The Tropic of cancer passes through the Rann of Kachina.
(iv) 10° Channel passes through Madhya Pradesh.
(v) Satpura is a famous river.
(vi) The son river is touched by the Equator.
(vii) Andaman sea is on the western side of India.
(viii) Khasi Hills are on the eastern side of India.
Answer:
(i) No
(ii) Yes
(iii) Yes
(iv) No
(v) No
(vi) No
(vii) No
(viii) Yes.

Question 5.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The Go.ndwanaland was in the following part of Are ancient supercontinent:
(a) southern
(b) eastern
(c) western
(d) northern
Answer:
(a) southern

(ii) The following sea was situated between the Angaraland and the Gondwanaland in the geological part:
(a) the Arabian Sea
(b) the Bay of Bengal
(c) Tethys
(d) the Black Sea.
Answer:
(c) Tethys

(iii) The following is not a part of the Purvanchal:
(a) Patkai Bum
(b) Naga Hills
(c) Pir Panjal
(d) Mizo Hills.
Answer:
(c) Pir Panjal

(iv) The following is a part of the Western Ghats:
(a)Anai Rudi
(b) Shevroy
(c) Javadi
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Doda Betta

(iv) The following is a part of the Eastern Ghats:
(a) Javadi
(b) Anai Mudi
(c) Doda Betta
(d) None of these;
Answer:
(a) Javadi

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 1 India-Size and Location Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions Geography Chapter 1 India-Size and Location

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Geography India-Size and Location TextBook Questions and Answers

Standard Meridian HBSE 9th Class Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:
(i) The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through:
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Tripura
Answer:
(b) Orissa

(ii) The easternmost longitude of India is:
(a) 97° 25′ E
(b) 68°7’E
(c) 37° & E
(d) 82° 32’E.
Answer:
(a) 97° 25′ E

(iii) Uttaranchal, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with:
(a) China
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar.
Answer:
(c) Nepal

(iv) If you intend to visit the island Kavaratti during your summer vacations, which one of the following Union Territory of India you will be going to:
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Andaman and Nicobar
(d) Diu and Daman.
Answer:
(c) Andaman and Nicobar

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundaries with India. Identify the country
(a) Bhutan
(b) Tajikistan
(c) Myanmar
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(c) Myanmar

India Size And Location HBSE 9th Class Question 2.
Answer the following question briefly.
(i) Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian sea?
(ii) Name the countries which are larger than India?
(iii) Which island group of India lies to its south-east
(iv) Which island countries are our southern neighbours?
Answer:
(i) Lakshadweep
(ii) Russia, China, Canada, USA, Brazil, and Australia.
(iii) Andaman-Nicobar Islands
(iv) Sri Lanka, Maldives.

Size And Location Of India HBSE 9th Class Question 3.
The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat- in the West, but the watches show at the same time. How does this happen?
Answer:
The two hours difference between Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh is because of the two hours time lag. Though the sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh than in Gujarat as also in Jaisalmer, yet the standard time remains the same in the whole of the country.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Map Skills Answer HBSE Question 4.
The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered to be of great significance. Why?
Answer:
India’s location at the head of the Indian Ocean is itself of great significance. This is evident from the following:
1. Because of this location India was able to establish close cultural and commercial contacts with other .countries.
2. Due to this location, countries of East Africa, West Asia, East Asia, and South and South-West Asia could be reached easily through sea routes.
3. India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean realm justifies naming an ocean after it.
4. Because of this location, India is able to maintain direct trade relations not only with the neighbouring countries but also with all the countries of the world.
5. Due to this position India gets a very vast and open market very near to it.

Map Skills

India Size And Location Class 9 Questions Answers HBSE Question 1.
Identify the following with the help of map reading:
Answer:
(i) The Island groups of India lie in the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) The countries constituting the Indian Subcontinent.
(iii) The States through which the Tropic of Cancer passes.
(iv) The northernmost latitude in degrees.
(v) The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees.
(vi) The eastern and the western most latitude in degrees.
(viii) The place situated on the three seas.
(ix) The strait separating Sri Lanka from India.
(x) The Union Territories of India.
Answer:
See the following two maps (i) and (if) of India below:

Map (ii)

Answer:
Hints:
(i) Lakshadweep islands in the Arabian sea and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Myanmar.
(iii) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, Mizoram.
(iv) Indian union (Indira Point) and tne Mariland (Kanyakumari).
(v) 37%’N.
(vi) 8°4′ N.
(vii) 68° 7 E and 97° 25’E,
(viii) Nepal, Bhutan.
(ix) Kanyakumari.
(x) The Palk Strait.
(xi) Delhi, Chandigarh, Pondicherry,

Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science Geography India-Size and Location Important Questions and Answers

India Size And Location Class 9 Important Questions HBSE Question 1.
Name the island group of India lying in the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Geography 9th Class Chapter 1 HBSE Question 2.
Which island group of India lies to its southwest?
Answer:
Lakshadweep.

Question 3.
Which canal shortened the distance between India and Europe?
Answer:
Suez canal.

Question 4.
Which ocean will have to be crossed by a ship going from Singapore to Mogadishu.
Answer:
Indian ocean.

Question 5.
Point out the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of India extends between 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ latitudes touching Jammu and Kashmir in the North and Tamil Nadu in the south.

Question 6.
Name the southernmost point of the Indian Union.
Answer:
The Indira Point. 0 °

Question 7.
Where does the Indira point lie?
Answer:
In Andaman and Nicobar.

Question 8.
When was the Suez Canal opened?
Answer:
In 1869.

Question 9.
What is the importance of the Suez Canal for India?
Answer:
Suez Canal has reduced the distance between India and Europe by 7000 km.

Question 10.
Where is Cape of Good Hope?
Answer:
In South Africa.

Question 11.
Write the two routes by which India can reach North America, South America and Europe.
Answer:
These routes are –
(i) The Cape of Good Hope
(ii) The Suez Canal.

Question 12.
Name the countries which are- larger than India in area.
Answer:

• Russia
• Canada
• China
• the United States, of America
• Brazil
• Australia.

Question 13.
Which topic divides India into two arts?
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer

Question 14.
What is the shape of the areas to the south of the Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
Triangular.

Question 15.
What is the extension of the mainland of India?
Answer:
The mainland of India extends between 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ N latitudes and 68° 7′ E and 97° 25’E longitude.

Question 16.
In which hemisphere does India lie?
Answer:
In northern hemisphere

Question 17.
If the globe is divided vertically into eastern and western hemispheres, in which hemisphere will India lie ?
Answer:
Eastern.

Question 18.
What is the length of the Indian coastline?
Answer:
About 7500 km.

Question 19.
How many Indian States are touched by the Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
9.

Question 20.
Name the two extremes, states of India touched by the Tropic of Cancer.
Answer:
1. Gujarat
2. Mizoram.

Question 21.
State the seven largest countries of the world.
Answer:
The seven largest countries, along with their sizes, are as follows:
Russia: 17.07 million sq kms
China: 9.59 million sq km
Canada: 9.21 million sq kms
USA: 9.07 million sq km
Brazil: 8.51 million sq kms
Australia: 7.68 million sq km
India: 3.28 million sq km.
This can be explained through a graph as under

Question 22.
Explain with examples India’s link i with other countries.
Answer:
The exchange of ideas and commodities dates back to. the ancient times. India’s link with West Asia, East Asia, and Central and South Asia are noteworthy features. While Buddhism travelled from India to – Tibet, China and as far as Japan and the Korean peninsula, on the other hand, the Mongols, the Turks, the Arabs and the Iranians contributed richly to the country’s architectural heritage. The ideas of the Upanishads, the Indian numeral and the decimal systems could also diffuse to many parts of the world due to these contacts.

Question 23.
Why the sun’s rays are more direct on the Nicobar Islands than on Jammu and Kashmir?
Answer:
It is a well-known fact that the sun always shines vertically on the Equator. Because of Bus fact a place the never to the Equator, the hotter it is the Nicobar Islands are nearer to the Equator as compared to Jammu and Kashmir. Hence sun’s rays are more direct on the Nicobar Islands than on Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 24.
In which parts of India would be the sun’s rays more oblique?
Answer:
The sun’s rays would be more oblique on the northern frontiers of India. This is the reason why these areas have a lesser amount of heat.

Question 25.
Point out the latitudinal extends of India. What are its implications?
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of India is about 3,200 km. It is 1/2 of the total circumference of the. earth. This fact has the following implications:
1. The southern parts of India get more heat from the sun than the northern parts.
2. The difference between the duration of the day and night is lesser in southern parts of- India in comparison with the northern parts.
3. As a matter of fact the difference the length of the day and night in the southernmost part of India is only 45 minutes while in the northern parts this difference is about 5 hours.

Question 26.
Point out the value of the Prime Meridian of India.
Answer:
To adopt one timing for the whole country, India has accepted 82° 30′ E longitude as the Standard Meridian of India. In fact, India lies to the east of the Prime Meridian between 68° 7′ to 97° 25′ East Longitude. The local time at this Meridian has been accepted as the Indian Standard Time throughout India. It helped in avoiding a lot of confessions which, otherwise *would have been created due to the difference among local timings. In fact, it has brought harmony in timings of the whole country.

Question 27.
Point out the reason behind the two hours time difference between the two eastern and western extremities of India.
Answer:
The earth takes about 4 minutes to rotate through 1° of longitude. The sun rises earlier in the east than in the west. The longitudinal extent of India is 30 degrees. Because of these facts, the difference in time in the easternmost part and the most western part of India would be 30 × 4 =120 minutes = 2 hours. This is the reason that the sun rises two hours earlier in the easternmost part of India.

Question 28.
What is the importance of the partially enclosed character of the land of India?
Answer:
The partially enclosed character of the land of India has strengthened the uniqueness of the country by assimilating new cultural elements coming from outside and yet fostering unity and homogeneity in the Indian society.

Question 29.
Answer the following questions after studying the map:
(i) Any two countries located in the East of India.
(ii) Any three countries located in the North.of India.
(iii) Two neighbouring countries of India in the west.
Answer:
(i) Myanmar, Thailand.
(ii) Nepal, Bhutan, China.
(iii) Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Question 30.
Answer the following questions after studying the map:
(i) The nearest southern neighbour of India.
(ii) Any three southern states of India.
(iii) Any three northern states of India.
Answer:
(i) Sri Lanka
(ii) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
(in) Jammu-Kashmir, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 31.
Give reasons:
(i) While the sun has already risen in Arunachal Pradesh, it is still dark in Gujarat.
(ii) Ahmedabad will see the sun overhead twice a year,
(iii) Why has Meghalaya been named as such?
(iv) India is of ten referred to as a subcontinent.
Answer:
(i) Sun rises in Gujarat two hours later than in Arunachal Pradesh.
(ii) The Tropic of cancer which runs almost halfway through India divides it into two separate climatic zones. The areas which are situated beyond the Tropic of Cancer or are lying to the north of the Tropic of Cancer, never have a mid-day Sun overhead. On the other hand, the places which are within the tropics or the places which are lying to the north of the Tropic of Cancer experience the mid-day sun when the sun is Overhead, at Tropic of Cancer. Ahmedabad and Kolkata both fall within the tropics and hence are able to see the noon sun exactly overhead twice a year.
(iii) Because Meghalaya literally means the abode of clouds.
(iv) It is rightly referred to as a subcontinent because it is separated from the rest of the continent by natural features such as mountains and rivers. Furthermore, it has its own specific climatic characteristics and distinct cultural identity.

Question 32.
Why 82° 30′ E has been selected as the standard Meridian of India?
Answer:
From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a time lag of two hours. Hence along the standard Meridian of India (82° 30′ E) passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh is taken as the standard time of the whole of India.

Question 33.
What is the longitudinal extent of our country? State its significance.
Or
What do you mean by the longitudinal extent of India?
Point out the implications of the longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
The longitudinal extent of our country shows the geographical conditions of our country. Our country India lies Between 68° 7′ E to 97° 25’E longitudinal extent, Hence its longitudinal extent is about 30°. The longitudinal extent of India is quite vast. Its east-west extent is quite wider which is very much significant The importance and implications of the Longitudinal extent of India can be pointed out in the following manner:

1. Because of the vast east-west extent of India it is quite dosed to East Asian Countries on the eastern side and to the West Asian Countries like Afghanistan, Iran, Iraq, and Arabian countries on the Western side. This situation presides vast seeps for trade and commerce. It also helps India in having close relations between East Asian Countries and West Asian Countries.

2. Because of the Vast east-west longitudinal extent India is quite near to Japan, Australia and other East African countries, as well as to many of the European countries. America lies equidistant to India whether. from the eastern or western side.

Question 34.
India’s strategic location on the head of the Indian Ocean has helped her in establishing land and maritime contacts with the outside world in ancient and medieval times. Explain.
Answer:
India’s contacts with the world, in fact, have continued through the ages. In fact, the exchange of ideas and commodities dates back to ancient times. This fact is supported by the following facts:

1. The ideas of the Upanishads and the Ramayana as well as the stories of the Panchatantra have reached many parts of the world.
2. The Indian numerals and the decimal system could reach any part of the world from India because of this contact.
3. The spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries since ancient times.
4. India was also influenced by other countries and cultures. For example, the influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of domes and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of our country.
5. The traders from India established links with Egyp, Sudan, Somalia, Kenya and Tanzania.
6. Several Indian merchants were even able to establish a new kingdom far away from their country.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the following blanks with correct words:
(i) The highest peak in India is the ……………
(ii) The Tropic of ………….. divides India into two almost equal parts.
(iii) India belongs to the …………. Hemisphere.
(iv) India is the …………… largest country in the world.
(v) The southern tip of the Indian mainland misses the …………. by only a few degrees.
(vi) The southern part of the coast is called
Answer:
(i) Kanchenjunga
(ii) Cancer
(iii) Eastern
(iv) Seventh
(a) Equator
(vi) Koromandal.

Question 2.
Match the following two lists.
(i) Ganga: The largest country in the world.
(ii) Russia: River associated with religion.
(iii) Everest: Hill station.
(iv) Shimla: River of the southern peninsula.
(v) Tapi: The highest peak in the world.
Answer:
(i) Ganga: The river associated with religion.
(ii) Russia: The largest country of the world.
(iii) Everest: The highest peak of the world.
(iv) Shimla: Hill station.
(v) Tapi: River of the southern peninsula.

Question 3.
Put (V) before each correct sentence:
(i) The Tropic of cancer exists at 23° 3(y N.
(ii) The Tropic of Cancer divides the country into almost two equal parts.
(iii) The areas to the south of the Tropic of cancer are round in shape.
(iv) The southernmost point of India is Kanyakumari.
(v) Lakshadweep islands are comparatively more scattered.
(vi) The Tropic of cancer does not pass through Chhattisgarh.
(vii) The Equator passes through Kerala.
(viii) Guwahati is thie capital of Meghalaya.
Answer:
(i) (✓)
(ii) (✓)
(iii) (✗)
(iv) (✗)
(vi) (✗)
(vii) (✗)
(viii) (✗)

Question 4.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:
(i) India lies in the following hemisphere:
(a) northern
(b) eastern
(c) southern
(d) western
Answer:
(a) northern

(ii) The Bay of Bengal is located on the following side of India:
(a) south-west
(b) south-east
(c) north-west
(d) north-east.
Answer:
(b) south-east

(iii) The Indira point was submerged in seawater during Tsunami in the following year:
(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
Answer:
(d) 2004

(iv) The following is, territory-wise, a larger country than India:
(a) France
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Brazil
(d) Germany.
Answer:
(c) Brazil

(v) The Standard Meridian of India is:
(a) 97°25 E
(b) 68°7′ E
(c) 82°30′ E
(d) 83°20′ E.
Answer:
(c) 82°30′ E

(vi) The total number of the Union Territories, in India, are:
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 7

(vii) The Meridian in India passes through:
(a) Mirzapur
(b) Kanpur
(c) Jaipur
(d) Rajpur.
Answer:
(a) Mirzapur

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Civics Democracy in the Contemporary World TextBook Questions and Answers

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Democracy In The Contemporary World Question Answer HBSE Question 1.
Which of the following does not to the spread of democracy in the first decade after 1945?
(a) Struggle by the people
(b) Invasion by foreign countries
(c) End of colonialism
(d) People’s desire for freedom.
Answer:
(d) People’s desire for freedom.

Democracy in the Contemporary World Of Haryana 9th Class Question 2.
Which of the following statement is true about today’s world:
(a) Monarchy as a form of government has vanished.
(b) The relationship betwefen different countries has become more democratic than ever before,
(c) In more and more countries, rulers are being elected by the people.
(d) There are no more military dictators in the world.
Answer:
(c) In more and more countries, rulers are being elected by the people.

Question 3.
Use one of {he following statements to complete the Sentence. Democracy in international organisations requires that:
(a) The rich countries should have a greater say ,
(b) Countries should have a say according to their military power.
(c) Countries should be treated with respect in proportion to their population
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.
Answer:
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.

Question 4.
Based on the information given in thischapter, match the following countries and Nhe path democracy has taken in that country:

Answer:

Question 5.
What are the difficulties people face in a non-democractic country ? Give answers drawing from the examples given in this chapter.
Answer:
People face numerous difficulties in a non-democratic country. Some such difficulties are as under :
1. People are deviod of their basic rights;
2. They are not allowed to protest against the atrocities inflicted on them;
3. They are not permitted to express and demonstrate their opposition;
4. They are not allowed to form, organisations to state their grievances.
5. They do not choose their rulers, nor change them.
6. They do riot possess freedom; they do not express their opinion nor can they organise protest and political action.

Question 6.
Which freedoms are usually taken away when a demcoracy is overthrown by the military ?
Answer:
When a democracy is overthrown by a military, the people lose all their freedoms. They do not have the freedom to speech and, expression of their opinion. They cannot , form political organisations, or organise their protest and action.

Question 7.
Which of the following positions can contribute to democracy at the global level? Give reasons for your answer in each case.
(a) My country gives more money to international institutions. Therefore, I want to be treated with more respect and exercise more power.
(b) My country may be small or poor. But my voice must be, heard, with equal respect, because these decisions will affect my country.
(c) Wealthy nations will have a greater say in international affairs. They cannot let their interests suffer just because they are outnumbered by poor nations.
(d) Big countires like India must have a greater say in international organisations.
Answer:
(a) By merely giving more money to the international institutions, a country should not be treated with more respect and exercise power. Democracy does not thrive on luxuries, nor by the rich. It is platoracy, the rule of the rich, and hot the rule of the people.

(b) A country may be small in size and poor economically. Democracy will strength-en if all the countires, irrespective of their size oreconOmy, are treated equally. Decisions in democracy affect all the countries equally.

(c) If wealthy nations, because of their wealth, have a greater say in international affairs, they would make decisions which would promote; their interests. This would not contribute to democracy, rather it would harm it adversely.

(d) Countries Which are large in population and bigger in size such as India should have their say not at the cost of smaller ones. Representation of interests and number should be given corresponding weightage. John Stuart Mill was strongly of the view that the interest should not be sacrificed at the cost of number, nor the vice-versa.

Question 8.
Where are three opinions heard in a television debate on the struggle for democracy in Nepal. Which of these do you agr4e with and why ?
Guest 1: India is a democracy. Therefore, the Indian government must support he people of Nepal who . are stuggling against’monarchy and for democracy.

Guest 2: That is a dangerous arugment. We would be in the same position as the US was in IraQuestion Remember, no outside force can promote democracy.

Guest 3: But why should we bother about the internal affairs of another country? We should be worried about our business interests there, not about democracy.
Answer:
Democracy breeds from within. Imposition of democracy on others or from above is, indeed, dangerous as the USA. really did in Iraq It is impertinent that any democratic country, India including, should encourage democracy wherever it exists, but no country should implant democracy. One can teach people swimming if they do not learn themselves to swim. The opinion of guest 3 is really weighty, for we should protect our interests in other countries, not that we make them democrat by losing our interest.

Question 9.
In an imaginary country called Happyland, the people overthrew the foreign ruler and brought back the old royal family. They said: “After all their ancestors were our kings before foreigners started ruling us. It is good that we have one strong ruler, – who can help us become rich and powerful”. When someone talked about democracy the wise men said it is a foreign idea. Their struggle was to throw the foreigners and their ideas out of the country. When someone demanded freedom for the media, the elders thought that too much criticism of the ruler would not help them improve their living standards. “After, all, the king is so kind and interested in the welfare of all the subjects. Why create problems for him. Don’t we all want to be happy ?”

After reading the above passage, Chaman, Champa and Chandra made the following observations:
Chaman: Happyland is a democratic country because people were able to throw out the foreign rulers and bring back the king.

Champa: Happyland is not a democratic Country because people cannot criticise the ruler. The king may be nice and may provide economic prosperity, but a king cannot give a democratic rule.

Chandra: What people heed is happiness. So they are willing to allow their new ruler to take decisions for them. If people are happy to must be democracy. What is your opinion about each of these statements? What do you think about the form of government in this country ?
Answer:
Democracy means the rule of the people, by them and for them. A slave country is never a democratic Country. National independence is one where people are free from the foreign rule. The liberation’from the British and independence of India were connected with the democratic idea. But, if a country libertes itself from foreign rule and reverts back to the monarchical system does not make that democray, for monarchy is not democracy.

In fact, Where the rulers are hot subject to criticism by the people in general, there one does not find democracy. The essence of democracy is that the people rule themselves, that they can criticize their rulers and that they have freedom of opinion, and expression, and that they can change their rulers through election: Democracy and happiness are not the same, A happy man is not a democratic man, though for a democracy, there is a need to have a good economy. People can build democracy and can also build their economy : the two supplement each other. A country which has a kihg at its head is a monarchy and not a democracy, if the king is only a constitutional head, a country can be, as in Britain, a democratic form of a government.

HBSE 9th Class Social Science Civics Democracy in the Contemporary World Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is Allende pronounced ?
Answer:
Allende is pronounced as Avendo.

Question 2.
When was Allende’s government overthrown
Answer:
Allende’s government was overthrown on September 11,1973.

Question 3.
When was Allende made President of Chile?
Answer:
Salvador Allende was made the President of Chile in 1970.

Question 4.
Mention the name of the political party which came to po wer in Chile in 1970.
Answer:
Popular Unity.

Question 5.
Who succeeded Allende in Chile in a.military coup ?
Answer:
General Augusta Plnchet succeeded Allende.

Question 6.
Where is Calama located ?
Answer:
Calama is located about a thousand miles away from the capital of Chile, Santiago.

Question 7.
How did the women of Calama demonstrate their grief?
Answer:
They remained silent, always in silence.

Question 8.
Which state in our country has a shape similar to Chile?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 9.
Can you find, examples similar to what happened to Women of Calama from other countries?
Answer:
In Russia during the Czarist regime.

Question 10.
Can you identify who is the President of Chile now?
Answer:
Michelle Bachelet (Jan, 2006).

Question 11.
Why did newspapers in that country not write about the women of Calama in those years?
Answer:
The newspapers in that country, in those years, were under state censorship.

Question 12.
Which political party governed Poland in 1980 ?
Answer:
The Polish UnitedWorkers Partya one-party monopoly of power.

Question 13.
In which factory in the city of Golansk file strike began in 1980?
Answer:
Lenin Shipward.

Question 14.
Name the person who joined the strikers in Poland in 1980.
Answer:
Lech Walesa.

Question 15.
Name any two countries where the communist Party ruled during the Polish events in 1980.
Answer:
Bulgaria and Hungary.

Question 16.
Identify a few countries around Poland.
Answer:
Germany, Lithuania, Belarus, Slovakia, and Ukraine.

Question 17.
Why did strike begin in shipyard?
Answer:
The strike began to take back a crane operator a woman worker, who faced unjust dismissal from service.

Question 18.
Why was an independent trade union so important for Poland?
Answer:
It was the first trade union formed independently of the government’s, control.

Question 19.
When did the Glorious revolution occur in England?
Answer:
The glorious revolution occurred in England ih 1688.

Question 20.
When did the 13 colonies declared independent in what is now known as the United States of America 7
Answer:
In 1776.

Question 21.
Mention the several steps taken by the AHende government to help the poor workers.
Answer:
The Allende’s government, in Chile, took several steps to help the poor workers. These included
(1) reforms iri the educational system
(2) ree milk for children
(3) redistribution of land among the farmers.

Question 22.
Give two reasons Why AHende’s political party was popular in Chile?
Answer:
Allende’s political party, the Popular Unity was popular in Chile for reasons given below:
1. It was opposed to foreign companies exploiting natural resources (copper) against the interests of the people of Chile.
2. The rich opposed Allende’s political party, though the workers, by and large, liked Allende’s efforts.

Question 23.
What did Pinocfiet’s regime dp after over-throwing Allende’s government in Chile in 1973 ?
Answer:
Pinochet’s regime, after taking over the power, began torturing people and killing those who were supporting Allende In the
process, more than 2000 people were killed by the military regime. Many more were, reported ‘missing’. No one knows what had happened to them.

Question 24.
Why did Allende refer to “workers” in his speech ? Why would have the rich opposed to him ?
Answer:
Before Allende’s government wa$ taken over by Pinochet’s military regime, he got the opportunity to address his people, referring them as ‘workers’; The rich-opposed Allende because his policies were pro-workers and pro-poor.

Question 25.
Think why would women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet? Why people could not react to those events?
Answer:
The women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet because if they spoke, their children would be killed by the military. People, could not react to military’s torture because they knew that if they reacted, they would also be tortured.

Question 26.
How was Poland ruled in 1980 ?
Answer:
Poland, in 1980, was ruled by the Polish United Worker Party. Then there was a one party monopoly of power in Poland. No one was permitted to oppose the official party line. The government trade unions owned all the factories. These trade unions were not independent of the ruling party.

Question 27.
Why did the strike begin in Lenin Shipyard in Gdansk ?
Answer:
The workers of the Lenin Shipyard started strike in the city of Gdansk.. The demand of the workers was to take back a crane operator, a woman worker, who faced an unjust dismissal from service.

Question 28.
Which other demands were put forth as the strike spread across the whole city of Gdansk ?
Answer:
The Lenin Shipyard strike spread as Lech Walesa, also dismissed from the service as an electrician, joined the strike. The demands of the workers began swelling:
(i) all the workers removed from the service be taken back;
(ii) the workers sought right to have independent trade unions;
(iii) political process be made freed;
(iv) censorship on the press be removed.

Question 29.
Mention two provisions of the 21 point agreement made between the Polish government and the workers led by Walesa.
Answer:
The two provisions of the 21 point, agreement between the polish government and the workers were:
(i) The workers’ right to form independent trade unions was guaranteed.
(a) They got the right to go on strike.

Question 30.
Why did the Polish government led by Polish United Workers Party goc panicky ?
Answer:
The Polish Workers United Party got panicky as the’Solidarity, led by Walesa had more than one crore workers as its members; the revelations that the government was corrupt and mismanaged made the latter declare the martial in the country. As thousands of the Solidarity members were put in prison, the government withdrew freedoms given of the people.

Question 31.
What led to the rise of Walesa attaining power in Poland ?
Answer:
In late 1980s, Walesa was gaining popularity. He led another strike in 1988. The government had already become weak; the economy was bn its .decline; there was no hope of government’s getting support from the USSR. An agreement resulted in having free elections in the country. The solidarity won 99 seats of the Senate which had a total strength bf 100. Lech Walesa became the President in October 1990.

Question 32.
What reasons would you give to say that Solidarity was popular in 1990 ? ’
Answer:
The following are the reasons to say that the Solidarity was popular in Poland in 1990:
(i) Solidarity was a trade union organized to protect the interests of the workers.
(ii) It sought to gain rights in favour of the workers, i.e. the right to organise, and right tostrike
(iii) It sought to gain rights such as freedoms to talk about freely and to express protests.
(iv) It was able to organise itself under the able leadership of men like Lech Walesa.

Question 33.
What freedoms were devised to the people in Chile and Poland when they did not have democracy ?
Answer:
When Chile and Poland did not have democracy in 1970s and 1980s respectively, the people were denied numerous freedoms. Some of these were:
(i) They were denied right to personal liberties;
(ii) They were denied right to freedom of speech;
(iii) They were not allowed to organise strike;
(iv) They were not allowed to register their protests freely;
(v) They were not permitted to express their views in the press; press was also not free.

Question 34.
Can you think of reasons why people would have liked a change in their government?
Answer:
The people would have liked to have a change in their government because they would have liked a democracy in place of non-democracy; their desire to have a change would have ushered an era of freedoms and prosperity for the people.

Question 35.
Identify some features that made Portugal under Salazar a case of non¬democracy.
Answer:
1. Salazar overthrew the elected, government in 1926.
2. From 1926 to 1974, Salazar ruled as a dictator.
3. Salazar suppressed opposition; killed their leaders;
4. He organized ‘concentration camps’ where lie punished those who were involved in the working class in forests.
5. He ruled through spies who were present at public places?
6. Citizens were denied freedoms; they could not discuss politics in the open.

Question 36.
What could be the impact of the presence of secret police in a public place? Why is it necessary for people to discuss politics without fear?
Answer:
The presence of secret police in public places: cafes, railway stations, post offices, hospitals, universities, factories-would mean having a reign of terror. Under such system, citizens would not talk against the regime for fear of being arrested -and tortured. Politics without fear is a guarantee of democracy; with fear, that of a non-democracy.

Question 37.
Why’were women-given voting rights much later than men in most countries? Why did this not happen in India?
Answer:
Franchise (Voting rights) movements started in different countries at different times. These movements sought male franchise first. This is why men got voting rights earlier. In India this did not happen so because democratic and voting rights ushered for all at the same time after independence.

Question 38.
How diet the French Revolution, the Glorious Revolution and the American War of independence help pave the way for democracy?
Answer:
The French revolution of 1789 did not establish a secure and stable democracy, in France. But it prepared the ground for and inspired many struggles for democracy all over Europe. The French revolution was preceded by a more limited but no less significant movement in Britain. This culminated in the ‘Glorious’ revolution of 1688. Around the same time as the French revolution, the British colonies in what is today the United States of America declared themselves independent.

Since the principle underlying the Declaration of Independence of 1776 was democratic, it was natural that they set up a democratic system in the Constitution of the United States of America. These developments decided once for all that there are no divine rights of. the kings,- that men and women constitute the basis on which their rights and liberties are built, that men and women are bom equal and bom free.

Question 39.
How would you describe Salazar’s regim? as a dictatorship ? Elections were weld in Salazar’s Portugal. Why should it not be called a democracy?
Answer:
Salazar captured power in Portugal in 1926. For about a half-century, he ruled the country as a a.dictator. He was cruel to the opposition leaders, tortured them and killed them. His government started concentration camps on a barren island to punish those involved in working-class protests. The spies and informers of the secret police were present in all public- places-cafes, railway stations, post offices/ hospitals, offices, universities and’ factories. Being fearful of arrest, the citizen could ndt dare to discuss politics in the open.

After 1945, the government allowed the opposition to campaign for one month before the elections. This one-month of’’free time’ was never enough to mobilize people politically for support during elections a$ no opposition was allowed after elections. The elections were held irregularly, every four or seven years. The opposition never won a single seat in these elections.

Question 40.
The late 17th century and the early 20th century saw some “democracies” in the world. Why were they not called democracies in the sense we use in the world today ?
Answer:
Some countries of the’ world could be called ‘democracies’ by the beginning of the twentieth century. But these countries, which became democratic in the 19th century, did not allow all people to vote. Often the women did not have a right to vote. In some countries only people owning property had the right to vote. In the United States of America, the blacks did not have a right to vote all over the country until the second half of the twentieth century. So we cannot say that these were full democracies in the sense in. which we understand it today.
Never, the beginning for democracy had begun. These countries had some of the following things common to them:
1. The governments were no more dictatorial. A measure of governmental accountability was seen.
2. Some kind of limited representative systems had started.
3. People had started launching movements for their rights.

Question 41.
Where do you place Ghana as a democratic nation?
Answer:
The country that is today called Ghana used to be a British colony called Gold Coast. This country became independent in 1957. It was among the first counties in Africa to be liberated from colonialism. It inspired other African countries to struggle for freedom. Kwame Nkrumah, son of a goldsmith and a teacher himself, was active in the independence struggle of his country. For him, like many other African nationalists,
the struggle against foreign rule, was linked to establishing democratic rule.

After independence, Nkrumah became the first prime minister and then the president of Ghana. He was a friend of Jawaharal Nehru and an inspiration for democrats, in Africa. But unlike Nehru, he deviated from the path of democracy and got himself elected the president for life. Nkrumah justified his actions by arguing that “Even a system based on a democratic constitution may need backing up in the period following independence by emergency measures of a totalitarian kind”. Shortly thereafter, in 1966, he was overthrown by military, Ghana was no longer a democracy.

Question 42.
Explain wi(h examples as to how democracy lias been adopted in the world since 199’0’s.
Answer:
The 1990 saw’ numerous changes in the World. The communist regime came to an end in Poland, and Hungary in eastern European countries. The USSR disintegrated as a simple country and multi-party system came to be adopted. Major changes, especially in Pakistan and Bangladesh” made a transition from army rule to democratic regime in 1990s. In Nepal the monarch gave up many of his powers to become a ‘constitutional monarch’ to be guided by elected leaders. These changes ‘ were not permanent and were reversed in Pakistan and Nepal.

Yet the overall trend in this period is.of more and more countries turning to democracy. This phase continues till now. By 2002, about 140 countries were holding multi-party elections. This number was higher than ever beforfe. More than 80 previously non-democratic countries have made significant advances,vtowards democracy, during this period. ButKeven today, there are many countries where people cannot express their opinion freely. They still cannot elect their leaders. They cannot decide how they will live in the present and in the future.

Question 43.
Give a detailed account of developments that took place in Myanmar since 1990.
Answer:
Elections were held in Myanmar (earlier Burma) in 1990. The NED (National League for Democracy), led by Aung Sang Suti Kyi won with a comprehensive victory. But the military rulers of Myanmar refused to recgonise the election results and put the elected pro-democracy leaders including Suu Kvi under house arrest. Political activists, accused of even the most trivial offences, have been jailed from seven to fifteen years. Anyone caught publicly airing view’s or issuing statements critical of the regime was sentenced up to twenty yearsin prison. Due to the coercive policies of the military-ruled government in Myanmar, about 6 to 10 lakh people in that country, have been uprooted from their homes and have taken shelter elsewhere.

Despite the restrictions of house arrest, Suu Kyi continued to campaign for democracy. According to her, “The quest for democracy in Myanmar is the struggle of the people to live whole, meaningful lives as free and equal members of the w’orld community. Her struggle has won international recognition; She w’as awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. Yet the people in Myanmar are still struggling for establishing a democratic government.

Question 44.
Are we moving towards global democracy ? Give examples.
Answer:
We know that democracy has expanded. Now more arid more people in Asia and Africa are also able to take part in forming governments in their countries. But does this trend also hold true for relationship among different countries or people from different countries ? Are we moving towards global democracy ? A quick look at some of the major global institutions suggests that we are not.
Expansion of democracy within nations has not led to greater democracy at the inter¬national level. Consider these facts:

1. The United Nations (UN) is the largest and best-known international organisation in the world. Every one of its 192 member countries has one vote in the UN General Assembly. But all the crucial decisions about taking action in any conflict situation are taken by the 15 member Security Council. While ten of its members are non-permaroent, the real po wer is with five ‘permanent’ members-USA, Russia, UK, France and China. Any one of; these five can ‘veto’, that is to reject of to stall, any decision of the Security Council.

2. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest money lenders for any country in the World. Its 173 member states do not have equal voting power. The vote of each country is weighed by how much money it has given to IMF. Eight of the leading ‘G-8’ (Canada, Germany, Japan, Italy, UK, USA, Russia, and France) countries have a majority of votes. The World Bank has a similar .system of voting. The President of the World Bank is always a citizen of the USA, nominated by the Treasury Secretary (Finance Minister) of the US government.

3. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the key-global institution that decides upon rules of trade among different countries. Every decision of the WTO has to be by consensus of all the countries. So it appears to be fully democratic. But most of the-decisions are taken in informal meeting which are secret and to which only some powerful countries are invited. In fact, While nations are becoming more democratic than they were earlier/ international organisations are becoming less democratic. In this sense, the.collapse of ‘ the USSR had negative effect on democracy.

Now, the USA is the only super power in the world. This has encouraged the USA to act unilaterally, without seeking the consent of or even consultation with other countries. This has led more and more people and countries to say that the UN should be more democratised. Only through equal participation of all the members, can the UN be a democratic organistion. In this way, the world also can be more democratic. *

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with suitable words/names/events:
(i) The deposed leader of Chile in 1973 was …………. (Pinochat, Allende)
(ii) Calama is a place a thousand miles away from …………. (Chicago, Santiago)
(iiii) The name of the trade union leader in Poland in 1980s was ………… (Walesa,Luxembourg).
(iv) The French Revolution occurred in …………. (1776,1789).
(v) Salazar was a dictator of …………….. (Myanmar, Portugal).
(vi) Suu Kyi got the Nobel Prize in ………….. (Economics, Peace)
Answer:
(i) Allende
(ii) Santiago
(iii) Walesa
(iv) 1789
(v) Portugal
(vi) Peace.

Question 2.
Choose (✓) or (✗) from the following :
(i) Russia is indulging in democracy promotion these lays.
(ii) Myanmar is the changed name of Burma.
(iii) Gold Coast is known as Nabibia now.
(iv) Salazar was a dictator of Portugal.
(v) Poland had a popularly elected President in Pinochet.
(vi) Democracy is the best form of government.
Answer:
(i) ✗
(ii) ✓
(iii) ✗
(iv) ✓
(v) ✗
(vi) ✓

Question 3.
Choose the right answer from the alternatives given below:
(i) The name of Allende political party was
(a) Solidarity
(b) Popular Unity
(c) United Wprkers Party
Answer:
(b) Popular Unity

(ii) Myanmar was once known as:
(a) Hong Kong
(b) Burma
(c) Laos
(d) Indonesia.
Answer:
(b) Burma

(iii) The following country changed from democracy to non-democracy:
(a) USA
(b) Chile
(c) England
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Chile

(iv) Walesa was elected leader in October, 1990 of:
(a) Chile
(b) Poland
(c) Portugal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(b) Poland

(v) WTO is a global institution associated with:
(a) Transport
(b) Trade
(c) Television
(d) Traffic
Answer:
(b) Trade

(vi) One of the following is not a member of G-8:
(a) Italy
(b) Sweden
(c) Japan
(c) Canada
Answer:
(b) Sweden

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 1 The French Revolution Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings

HBSE 9th Class Social Science History The French Revolution Intext Questions and Answers

French Revolution Question Answer HBSE 9th Class Question 1.
Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.
Answer:
France of pre-revolution 1789 was still governed by privileged groups-the nobility and the clergy-while the productive classes were taxed heavily to pay for foreign wars, court extravagance, and a rising national debt. For the most part, peasants were small landholders or tenant farmers, subject to feudal dues, to the royal agents indirect farming (collecting) taxes, to the corvee (forced labor), and to tithes and other impositions. Backward agricultural methods and internal tariff barriers caused recurrent food shortages, which netted fortunes to grain speculators, and rural overpopulation created land hunger.

In addition to the economic and social difficulties, the old regime was undermined intellectually by the apostles of the Enlightenment. French participation on the American Revolution had increased the huge debt, and Necker’s successor, Charles Alexandre de Calonne, called an Assembly of Notables (1787), hoping to avert bankrupcy by inducing the privileged classes to share in the financial burden. They refused in an effort to protect economic privileges.

French Revolution Solutions HBSE 9th Class Question 2.
Which groups of French society benefitted from the revolution ? Which groups were forced to relinquish power ?
Which sections of society would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution ?
Answer:
1. Groups of French society1 which benefitted from the revolution included those who belonged to the third estate, i.e. big businessmen, merchants, officials, lawyers.

2. Groups which were forced to relinquish power included those who belonged to the first state, i.e. clergy, and the second estate, i.e. the nobility-feudal lords.

3. Sections of society7 which Would have been disappointed with the outcome were those whi’ch belonged to the peasants ana the poor.

HBSE 9th Class Chapter 1 The French Revolution History Question 3.
Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world during the 19th and the 20th centuries.
Answer:
The French Revolution of 1789 was important in many respects. It brought the people of France to the forefront of politics. It set the model for the later revolutions. It changed the political map of Europe forever. To the peoples of the world, the revolution gave a charter of rights and liberties. To them, it gave them the inspiration to make their countries free nations. To them, it proved to be a leading light to fight absolutism and dictatorial regime. To them, it gave them lessons of democracy, nationalism, and, emancipation.

Question 4.
Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy, today whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution.
Answer:
The following is the list of some democratic rights we enjoy today and whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution:

Question 5.
Would you agree with the view that the message of universal right was beset with contradictions? Explain.
Answer:
We do not agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions. Rights are, if they have to be real, universal. In fact, it would be a contradiction that some have rights, and others do not have it. Some, as the clergy and the nobility during the days before the French Revolution, had privileges and others such as those belonging to the third estate having only obligations and duties is a contradiction. Men and women remain free and equal. This ideal alone makes liberty and equality both possible and feasible.

Question 6.
How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?
Answer:
Discontent with Directory, rule was increased by military reverses. In 1799 Napoleon Bonaparte, the hero of the Italian campaign, returned from his Egyptian expedition and, with the support of the army and several government members, overthrew the.Directory on 18 Brumaire (Nov, 9) and established, the Consulate. Until the Restoration of the Bourbons (1814), Napoleon ruled France.

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History vThe French Revolution Important Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
What led to the end of the monarchy in France?
Answer:
The French Revolution prepared the ground for the culmination of monarchy in India.

Question 2.
What is the Bastille?
Answer:
The Bastille is the fortress prison that belonged to the French King, Louis XVI. Its fall was the indication that the Revolution in France has begun.

Question 3.
Who was the king in France at the time revolution in 1789?
Answer:
Louis XVI.

Question 4.
To what does the Old Regime refer?
Answer:
The Old Regime is usually used to describe the society and institutions of France before 1789.

Question 5.
Mention the sections of society which constituted the third estate.
Answer:
Big businessmen, merchants, court officials, lawyers etc. Down below were the peasants, artisans, laborers, and servants.

Question 6.
What were the tithes?
Answer:
The tithe was a type of tax, extracted by the church from the peasant during pre¬revolution times.

Question 7.
What do you mean by subsistence crisis?
Answer:
A subsistence crisis is an extreme situation where the basic means of livelihood are in danger.

Question 8.
Name the book written by John Locke.
Answer:
Two Treatises on Government.

Question 9.
Who was Montesquieu? Name the book he wrote.
Answer:
Montesquieu was a French philosopher. The name of the book which he wrote was the Spirit of the Laws.

Question 10.
What was the Estates General?
Answer:
The Estate’s General was a political body to which the three estates* sent their representatives.

Question 11.
The image ‘the broken chain’ refers to something. Explain the image.
Answer:
The image ‘the broken chain’ refers to a situation of being free.

Question 12.
What does the image scepter mean?
Answer:
Sceptre means the symbol of royal power.

Question 13.
What does the image ‘the eye within a triangle radiating lighf signify?
Answer:
The image ‘the eye within a triangle radiating light7 implies that the all-seeing eye is knowledge and die rays of the sun will drive away the clouds of ignorance.

Question 14.
What does red Phrygian cap mean?
Answer:
The red phrygian cap means that one who wears it is free, and not a slave.

Question 15.
What does the image ‘the winged woman mean?
Answer:
It means the personification of law.

Question 16.
Explain the meaning of the image ‘the law tablet’.
Answer:
The image ‘the law tablet7 means that the law is the same for all and all are equal before law.

Question 17.
When was monarchy abolished and Republic instituted in France?
Answer:
Monarchy was abolished and the Republic was instituted on September 21,1792.

Question 18.
What is guillotine?
Answer:
Guillotine is a device, instituted in the regime of Robespierre, consisting of two poles and a blade. With its the guilty were beheaded.

Question 19.
What are ‘citbyen’ and ‘citoyenne’?
Answer:
The terms used for he-citizen and she-citizen repectively in 1794.

Question 20.
What led to the subsistence crisis in France on the eve of revolution in 1789?
Answer:
The population in France rose from 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in 1789. This led to a rapid increase in the demand for foodgrains. Production of grains could not keep pace with the demand. So the price of bread which was the staple diet of the majority rose rapidly. Most workes wre employed as labourers in workshops whose owners fixed their wages, but wages did not keep pace with the rise in prices. So the gap between the poor and the rich widened.This led to a subsistence crisis, something that occurred frequently in France during the Old Regime.

Question 21.
Why did the King Louis XIV call the meeting of the Estates General?
Answer:
The king wanted to increase the taxes. So he called for the meeting of the Estates General in May, 1789.

Question 22.
What were the main features of the Constitution of 1791?
Answer:
The following were the main features of thp Constitution of 1791:
1. The power to make laws was given to the National Assembly.
2. The National Assembly was to be i ndiredty elected: the ordinary citizens would elect the electors, and the electors, members of the National Assembly.
3. Voting power was given to the active citizens who paid taxes equal to three days of a labourer’s (i ) wages; the electors were those who paid more taxes.
4. A Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen was a part of the constitution. These rights included right to life, freedom of opinion, equality before law etc.

Question 23.
Explain the meaning of the painting of the Declara tion of Rights of Man and Citizen (see figure on p. 39) by reading only the symbols.
Ans.
The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen (figure painted by the artist Le Barbier in 1790) represents France on the right, and on the left, symbolises the law. The Declaration states rights of man and citizen.

Question 24.
Who was Qlympe de Gouges?
Answer:
Olympe de Gouges was one of the most important of the politically active women in revolutionary France. She protested against the Constitution and the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen as they excluded women from basic rights that each human being was entitled to. So in 1791, she wrote a Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen, which she addressed to the Queen and to the members of the National Assembly, demanding that they act upon it.

Question 25.
Describe briefly the legacy of the French Revolution.
Answer:
The ideas of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution. These spread from France to the rest of Europe during the nineteenth century, where feudal systems
were abolished. Colonised peoples reworked the idea of freedom from bondage into their movements to create a sovereign nation state:

Question 26.
Describe the causes of the French Revolution.
Answer:
There are three types of the causes relating to the French Revolution. These are intellectual, social and political causes :

I. Intellectual Causes-

• Liberty-Human Rights/Natural Rights.
• The sovereignty of the people.
• Equality meant equal rights for all and tinder the Law. Liberals also wanted freedom from a state-controlled economy. Property was seen as sacred. These were middle class property owners by and large.

II. Social Causes-
A. The Estates System
(i) First Estate:
The Clergy-1% of population, with 10% of land. They had wealth, land, privileges and they levied a tax on the peasantry, the tithe, which generally went to some remote bishop or monastery rather than the local parish priest.

(ii) Second Estate:
The Nobility-2-5% of population with 20% of the land. They also, had great wealth and taxed the; peasantry: There was a “feudal” resurgence in 18th century.

(iii) Third Estate:
Everyone Else-95-97% of the population. There were some few rich members, the artisans and all the peasantry. These were also class divisions.

(i) The Bourgeoisie-8% of the pulation, about 2.3 million people, with 20% of Land. They often bought land and exploited the peasants on it. In Third Estate, the most important group politically was the. Bourgeoisie.

(ii) The Peasants-With 40% of the land, formed the vast majority of population. There was population growth in this period; perhaps 3,00,000 people added over the century. Peasants paid the most tax: aristocrats did not pay. Peasants farmed the land, and regard it as their own, but it was hot legally theirs. What they wanted was to own their own property. This was radical only at to start with. Later it was to be conservative desire.

(iii) The Urban Poor of Paris-Artisans-factory workers, journey men. They were very poor probably less involved in poltiics. Artisans had different, interests than the bourgeoisie, but they played important role at several points. They were the most politicized group of poor people, possibly due to high literacy,

III. Political Causes-Some of these problems were:
(i) Economic Weakness-The Revocation of Edict of Nantes 1685 had struck, a blow at French commerced. The economy tottered for the next hundred years.
(ii) Taxation Problems-The richest were not taxed : i.e. the obles and Clergy. Taxes were indirect on the poorest part of population. the Taille on peasant produce -the Gabele-on salt -various trade tariffs (Hi) Dependence on loans-The banking system was not able to cope with the fiscal problems. It was” the need for King to raise taxes that led to the calling of the Estates General.
(iii) Cost of Mid Century Wars The Seven Years War 1756-63 cost a lot.
(iv) The Cost of Versailles and the Royal household etc.
(v) Bankruptcy of the State-By 1780s the government was nearly bankrupt. Half of government mcome was going on paying debts (annual deficit 126 Million Livres). (debt was almost 4 Billion Livres).

Question 27.
Compare the manifesto drafted by. Olympe de Gouges with the declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen.
Answer:
Olympe de Gouges (1748-1793), a revolutionary woman drafted a manifesto for women’s right. This can be reproduced as under:
1. Woman is born free and remains equal to man in rights.
2. The goal of all political associations is the preservation of the natural rights of woman and man. These rights are liberty, property, Security, and above all resistance to oppression.
3. The source of all sovereignty resides in the nation, which is nothing but the union of woman and man.
4. The law should be expression of the general will; all female and male citizens should have a say either personally or by their representatives in its formulation; it should be the same for all.
5. No woman is an exception; she is accused, arrested, and -detained in cases determined by law. Woman, like men, obey this rigorous law.

Question 28.
Bring out the effects, of the French Revolution.
Answer:
The Trench Revolution, though it seemed a failure in 1799 and appeared nullified by 1815, had far-reaching results. In France the bourgeois arid landowning classes emerged as the dominant power. Feudalism was dead; social order and contractual relations were consolidated by the Code Napoleon. The Revolution unified France . and enhanced the power of the national state.

Although some historians view the Reign of Terror as an ominous precursor of modern totalitarianism, others, argue that this ignores the vital role the Revolution played in establishing the precedents of such democratic institutions as elections, representative government, and constitutions. The failed attempts of the urban lower middle classes to secure economic and political gains foreshadowed the class conflicts of the 19th century.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words given in brackets:
(i) The fortress prison ……….. feil to the revolutionaries, (the Bastille, the Versailles)
(ii) The …………. constituted the first estate. (clergy, nobility)
(iii) Livre constituted a unit of currency in ………….. (America, France)
(iv) Louis XVI became king of France in (1715,1774)
(v) The philosopher ………… had an impact on the French Revolution. (Rousseau, Marx)
(vi) Napoleon was defeated in 1815 at …………… (Waterloo, Alscase)
Answer:
(i) the Bastille
(ii) clergy
(iii) France
(iv) 1774
(v) Rousseau
(vi) Waterloo

Question 2.
Choose true (✓) or false (✗) in the following sentences:
(i) The Declaration of Rights Of Man and Citizen is related to the American War of independence.
(ii) One Indian leader, Tipu Sultan, responded to the ideas coming from revolutionary Frartce, the other was Swami Vivekananda.
(iii) Slavery was finally abolished in France in 1848.
(iv) Robespierre was the leader of th£ JacobiAnswer:
(v) Marseillaise is the national anthem of France
(vi) France became Republic in 1789.
Answer:
(i) (✗)
(ii) (✗)
(iii) (✓)
(iv) (✓)
(v) (✓)
(vi) (✗)

Question 3.
Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given:
(i) The French Revolution occurred in:
(a) 1776
(b) 1789
(c) 1814
(d) 1830
Ans.
(b) 1789

(ii) The reign of terror period belongs to:
(a) 1789-1790
(b) 1790-1791
(c) 1792-1793
(d) 1794-1795
Ans.
(c) 1792-1793

(iii) Directory was an executive body consisting of the following:
(a) 3 members
(b) 4 members
(c) 5 members
(d) 6 members
Ans.
(c) 5 members

(iv) Women got franchise in the following year:
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1948
Ans.
(b) 1946

(v) At the time of French Revolution, the emperor was:
(a) Louis XIII
(b) Louis XIV
(c) Louis XV
(d) Louis XVI
Ans.
(d) Louis XVI

(vi) Old Regime belonged to the following period:
(a) Before 1789
(b) After 1789
(c) Before and after 1979
(d) None of the above.
Ans.
(a) Before 1789

(vii) France became Republic in:
(a) 1791
(b) 1792
(c) 1793
(d) 1794
Ans.
(b) 1792

(viii) One of the following participated in the French Revolution:
(a) Rousseau
(b) Robespierre
(c) Roosevelt
(d) Ramsay Mac Donald
Ans.
(c) Roosevelt

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 8 Clothing: A Social History Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 8 Clothing: A Social History

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History Clothing: A Social History TextBook Questions and Answers

Clothing A Social History Class 9 HBSE Question 1.
Explain the reasons for the changes in clothing patterns and materials in the eighteenth century.
Answer:
The eighteenth century Europe witnessed changes in the clothing patterns and materials. The French revolution ended the sumptuary laws meant for the socially inferiors. From now on, both, men and women, in France,.began wearing clothing that was loose and comfortable.

The colours of France-blue, white and red-became popular. The other political symbols too became a part of dress were the red cap of liberty, long trousers and the revolutionary cockade pinned on to the hat. The simplicity of clothing was meant to express the idea of equality, so significant in the French revolution.

Clothing A Social History HBSE 9th Class Question 2.
What were the sumptuary laws in France?
Answer:
The sumptuary Jaws were related to the dress and food codes during the medieval France/until the French revolution. The socially inferiors were to observe these laws, preventing them from wearing certain clothes, consuming certain foods and be erages (usually this referred to alcohol) and hunting game in certain areas.

In medieval France, the items of clothing a person could purchase per year was regulated not only by income but also by social rank. The material to be used for clothing was also legally prescribed. Only royalty could war expensive materials like. ermine and fur, or silk, velvet and brocade.

Question 3.
Give any two examples of the ways in which the European dress codes were different from the Indian dress codes.
Answer:
There are numerous differences between the dress codes of the Europeans and the Indians One exaimple is while the Europeans wear hat, the Indians use turban or cap. Another difference, usually the dhoti by men and sari by women. These differences relate to the times before the coming of the British in India.

Question 4.
In 1805, a British official, Benjamin Heyne, listed the manufacturers of Bangalore which included the following:

• Women’s cloth of different musters and names
• Coarse chintz
• Muslins
• Silk cloths

Of this list, which kind of cloth would have definitely fallen out of use in the early 1800s and why?
Answer:
Muslins. Such a kind of cloth so fitted the body that it led to deformities.

Question 5.
Suggest reasons why women in nineteenth-century India were obliged to continue wearing traditional Indian dress even when men switched over to the more convenient Western clothing. What does this show about the position of women in society?
Answer:
Women in 19th, century India wore the traditional Indian dress because they still were confined to household duties. Men, on the other hand, were exposed to the outer world. As such they began wearing western-style clothing, especially those who were engaged in. East India Company. The women had to wear traditional clothes because caste norms did not relish the changed dress codes of the women. Furthermore, the traditional clothing which women used to wear were comfortable one.

Question 6.
Winston Churchill described Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘seditious Middle Temple Lawyer’ now ‘posing as a half-naked fakir’.
What provoked such a comment and what does it tell you about the symbolic strength of Mahatma Gandhi’s dress?
Answer:
Winston Churchill was, by temperate and nature, an imperialist and by design, autocratic and arrogant. He made these comments about Gandhiji out of sheer jealousy, without knowing the support that half naked fakir’ had. Gandhiji’s strength lay in his simplicity and the live he had received form the millions of Indians for whom he not only lived, but died also. He, as the apostle of peace grandeur and simplicity, was much greater than millions of Churchills put together.

Question 7.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi dream of clothing the nation in khadi appeal only, to some sections of Indians?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi (1869-1948) was the greatest of the great which India has produced. He had mass appeal, with millions of Indians following him blindly. He was a simple man and knew the plight of a common poor Indian. He dressed himself as simple as possible. The use of Khadi by the Indian spun through charakha was symbolic of India’s patriotism. He knew that the common Indians could hardly afford costly clothes. That is different thing that some sections of Indians didnot subscribe to his views.

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History Clothing: A Social History Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give one example of what helped the building of the English woolen industry.
Answer:
Woolen caps. An English law prohibited the use of caps made up of velvet and urged the English to wear woollen caps on Sundays and on holy days.

Question 2.
What other demands were made with woman suffrage during 1830s England?
Answer:
Demands for dress reforms.

Question 3.
What do you mean by corset?
Answer:
Corset is a closely fitting and stiffinner bodice, worn. by women to give shape and support to the body’s figure.

Question 4.
What are stays?
Answer:
Stays constitute support as part of a woman’s dress to hold the body straight.

Question 5.
When did the Rational Dress Society begin its work?
Answer:
In, 1881, in England.

Question 6.
Who led the National Woman Suffrage Association in USA?
Answer:
Mrs. Stanton.

Question 7.
Who dominated the American Woman Suffrage Association in the USA ? ‘
Answer:
Lucy Stone.

Question 8.
Name the first Indian member of -the ICS.
Answer:
Satyendranath Tagore.

Question 9.
Name twp important textile weaving centres of early 20th century India.
Answer:
Murshidabad, Machhilipuram, Surat (Any two).

Question 10.
What did Khadi signify for Gandhiji?
Answer:
A sign of purity, of simplicity and of poverty.

Question 21.
Despite the sumptuary laws, differences remained between social strata in relation to dothing. ‘
Answer:
Differences between social strata remained. The poor could not dress like the rich, nor eat the same food. But laws no longer, barred peoples right to dress in the way they wished. Differences in earning, rather than sumptuary laws, now defined what the rich and poor could wear. And different classes developed their own culture of dress. The notion of what was beautiful or ugly, proper or improper, decent or vulgar, differed.

Question 12.
Write a brief note in the Victorian Women’s dothing.
Answer:
Clothing played significant role with regard to the clothing worn by the Victorian women. Women in Victorian England were groomed from childhood to be docile and dutiful, submissive and obedient. The ideal woman was one who could bear pain and suffering. Women were seen as frivolous, delicate, passive and dodle; Norms of clothing reflected these ideas. From childhood, girls were tightly laced up and dressed in stays. The effort was to restrict the growth of their bodies, contain them within small moulds. Tightly laced, small-wasted women were admired as attractive, elegant and graceful:

Question 13.
‘Tight clothing of women proved unhealthy.” Substantiate it
Answer:
Tight clothing restricted body growth and hampered blood circulation. Muscles remained underdeveloped and the spines got bent. Doctors reported that many women were regularly complaining of acute weakness, felt languid, and fainted frequently. Corsets then became necessary to hold up the weakened spine,

Question 14.
“Clothes got lighter, shorter and simpler.” In the light of its statement, briefly mention the state of clothing in the 19th century.
Answer:
The demand for more clothes began expanding during the 18th century. As a consequence of the industrial revolution, there began mass manufacture of cotton; textiles and clothes. Cotton clothes became more accessible to a wider section of people in England as well as in Europe. By the early twentieth century, artificial fibres made clothes still cheaper and easier to wash and maintain. In the late 1870s, heavy, restrictive underclothes, which had created such a storm in the pages of women’s magazines, were gradually discarded. Clothes got lighter, shorter and simpler.

Question 15.
What was Rabindranath Tagore’s suggestion with regard to the national dress ?
Answer:
The Tagore family of Bengal experimented, beginning, in the 1870s, with designs for a national dress for both men and women in India. Rabindranath Tagore suggested that instead of combining Indian and European dress, India’ national dress should combined elements of Hindu and Muslim dress. Thus the Chapkan (a long buttoned coat) was considered the most suitable dress for men.

Question 16.
Explain the Swadeshi movement of the early 20th century.
Answer:
People were urged to boycott British goods of all kinds and start their own industries for the manufacture of goods such as matchboxes and cigarettes. Mass protests followed, with people vowing to cleanse themselves of colonial rule. The use of khadi was made a patriotic duty. Women were urged to throw away their silks and glass bangles and wear simple shell bangles. Rough homespun was glorified in songs and poems to popularize it.

Question 17.
What were the changes in women clothing which came about as a result of two world wars.
Answer:
There had occurred changes in women’s clothing, as a result of the two world wars. Many European, women stopped wearing jewellery and luxurious clothes. Clothes got shorter during the First World War (1914-1918) out of practical necessity. ,By 1917, over 700,000 women in Britain were employed in ammunition factories.

They wore a working uniforrrr of blouse and trousers with accessories such as scarves, which was later replaced by khaki overalls and caps. Bright colours faded from sight and only sober colours were worn as the war. dragged on. Thus clothes became plainer and simpler. Skirts became shorter. Soon trousers became a vital part of Western women’s clothing, giving them greater freedom of movement. Most important, women took to cutting their hair short for convenience.

Question 18.
How did the Indian react when the Western style clothing came into India in the 19th century ?
Answer:
The Indians reacted in three different ways when the. Western-style clothing came into India during the 19th century.
One. Many, especially men, began incorporating some elements of western- style clothing in their dress. The wealthy Parsis of west India were among the first to adapt Western-style clothing. Baggy trousers and the phenta (or hat) were added to long colourless coats, .with boots and a walking stick to complete the look of the gentlemen.

To some, Western clothes were a sigh of. modernity and progress. Two. There wpre others who were convinced that western culture would lead to a loss of traditional cultural identity. The use of Western style clothes was taken as a sign of the world turning upside-down. Three. Some men resolved this dilemma- by wearing Western clothes without giving up.their Indian ones. Many Bengali bureaucrats in the late nineteenth century began stocking western-style clothes for work outside the home and changed into more comfortable Indian clothes at home.

Question 19.
What was the response to Gandhiji’s call for wearing Khadi clothes?
Answer:
Gandhiji’s dream was to clothe the whole nation in Khadi. He felt that Khadi would be a means of erasing differences of religions. But the people’s response was a mixed one. Some did follow Gandhiji’s Khadi clothes; some did not.

The following is the examples of other response to Gandhiji’s call:
1. Nationalists such as Motilal Nehru, a successful barrister from Allahabad, gave up his expensive Western-style suits and adopted the Indian dhoti and klirta. But these were not made of coarse cloth.

2. Those who had been deprived by caste norms for centuries were attracted to Western dress styles. Therefore, unlike Mahatma Gandhi, other nationalists such as Babasaheb Ambedkar never gave up the Western-style suit.

3. Other women, like Sarojini Naidu and Kamala Nehru, wore coloured saris with designs, instead of coarse, white homespun.

4. Most Muslims were more comfortable in the green robes made popular by Mohammed and Shaukat Ali during the Khilafat movement (1921). They were not attracted to khadi, though, some wore kurta and pyjamas. In. 1929, Khan Abdul Ghafar’Khan and his Pathan volunteers in the North West Frontier Provinces wore distinctive red clothes.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words given in the brackets:
(i) ……………. Cockade is cap usually worn on side. (one/two)
(ii) Suffrage relate to ………….. (right to vote, right to choose one’s clothes)
(iii) Stanton began movement to seek reform in women’s dress, in ………….. (USA, UK)
(iv) Chintz is …………… cloth printed with designs and’flowers. (cotton, jute, silk)
Answer:
(i) one
(ii) right to vote
(tit) USA
(iv) cotton.

Question 2.
Choose true (✓) and false (✗) in the following:
(i) The Victorian women wore loose . clothes.
(it) The Americans wore tight clothes in thel9th century.
(iii) Gandhiji wore simple clothes as much as needed.
(iv) Gandhiji’s Khadi was popular with Dr. Ambedkar.
Answer:
(i) (✗)
(ii) (✗)
(iii) (✓)
(iv) (✗).

Question 3.
Choose the right answer among the four alternatives given below:
(i) Khadi was popular with:
(a) Gandhiji
(b) Churchill
(c) Ambedkar
(d) Australians
Answer:
(a) Gandhiji

(ii) The Swadeshi movement began following the partition of Bengal in:
(a) 1905
(b) 1910.
(c) 1915
(d) 1920
Answer:
(a) 1905

(iii) Tagore wrote the following:
(a) Republic
(b) Das Capital
(c) Gitanjali
(d) on Liberty
Answer:
(c) Gitanjali

(iv) The Victorian women wore clothes which were:
(a) loose
(b) tight
(c) neither loose nor tight
(d) both loose and tight
Answer:
(b) tight

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 History and Sport: The Story of Cricket Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 7 History and Sport: The Story of Cricket

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History and Sport: The Story of Cricket TextBook Questions and Answers

History And Sport The Story Of Cricket HBSE 9th Class Question 1.
Test cricket is a unique game in many ways. Discuss some of the ways in which it is different from other team games. How are the peculiarities of Test cricket shaped by its historical Beginnings as a village game?
Answer:
Test cricket is a unique game in many ways. It is different from other games. Some of the differences are:

1. It is played for many days, three days earlier and five days later; the other games are played for a couple of hours; It is .time consuming.

2. The cricket pitch has a length of 22 yards, though the ground of the game is fairly big; it dpes not lay down the dimension of the playing areas whereas other games such as hockey and football do.

3. The cricket ground is either oval circular; the ground for other game is usually rectangular.

The peculiarities of the test cricket have been shaped by its historical beginning. The rural/village game of cricket was played on village commons with no time limit, then it came to be three days’ game; and thereafter, the test cricket, for five days. A match meant bowling put a team twice.

As the village life was slower, the cricket rules were made to conform to these situations. As the cricket was played at village commons, there was no limit of the size’of the ground and the boundaries were not specified distance wise. Again, the cricket equipments, such as bat, stamps, bails have a rural element. Ail theses are made up of wood, unlike the tools of the other games (golf and tennis etc.) which are industrially manufactured.

Story Of Cricket Class 9 HBSE History Question 2.
Describe one way in which in the nineteenth century, technology brought about a change in equipment and give one example where no change in equipment took place.
Answer:
19th-century technology has brought about changes m the cricket equipment though in numerous other ways, there has been no changes.
One change in cricket equipment relates to protective equipment such as pads, gloves, and helmets: these are the results of 19th-century technology. There is no change in the equipment: bats, stumps, bails, balls, remain as they were, though there are changes in their shapes and manufacturing.

Question 3.
Explain why cricket became popular in India and the West Indies. Can you give -reasons why it did not become popular in countries in Sbuth America?
Answer:
Cricket became popular in India because the local elites such as Parsis and the settled Europeans encouraged it. It became popular in the West Indies because the white settlers and the people of Indian origin made it popular. Cricket is played in Britain and in countries that had British colonies, i.e. in commonwealth countries. That is why it did not become popular in South America.

Question 4.
Give brief explanations for the following:
(i) The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India.
(ii) Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentangular tournament.
(iii) The name of the ICC was changed from the Imperial Cricket Conference to the International Cricket Conference.
(iv) The significance of the shift of the ICC headquarters from London to Dubai.
Answer:

• The Parsis were the people who came into close contact with the British because of their interest in trade and the first to westernize themselves, they were the first to set up a cricket club, i.e. the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay.
• Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentangular tournament because it had a communally divisive element.
• The name was changed from the Imperial Cricket Conference to International Cricket Conference so to scrap England- Australia influence on the conference.
• The shift symbolized the game’s centre of gravity to a place that is tax-free (Dubai).

Question 5.
How have advances in technology, especially television technology, affected the development of contemporary cricket?
Answer:
The advances in technology especially television technology have affected the development of contemporary cricket. Television coverage changed cricket. It expanded the audience for the game by bringing cricket into small towns and villages It also broadened cricket’s social base. Children who had never previously had the chance to watch international cricket could now watch and learn by imitating their heroes. The satellite technology created a global market for cricket. People in Jaipur can see the one-day being played at Dubai.

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History and Sport: The Story of Cricket Important Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
When were the laws of cricket first written?
Answer:
In 1744.

Question 2.
When was the world’s first cricket club formed and where?
Answer:
At. Hambledon, and in the 1760s.

Question 3.
When was the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) founded?
Answer:
1787.

Question 4.
Where was cricket originally played?
Answer:
Cricket was originally played on country commons. As such it has been a village sport.

Question 5.
What led to the introduction of protective equipment in cricket?
Answer:
The invention of vulcanized rubber led to the introduction of pads in 1848 and gloves afterward.

Question 6.
Who was Len Hutton?
Answer:
A professional batsman who led the English team in the 1930s.

Question 7.
Name the founder of the modern public school system.
Answer:
Thomas Arnold, the headmaster of the famous Rugby School.

Question 8.
Which game was considered the game for the girls during late 19th century?
Answer:
Croquet, and not cricket. It was a slow-paced elegant game, suitable for women.

Question 9.
Where is cricket usually played?
Answer:
Cricket is played in commonwealth countries.

Question 10.
Which and When was the first cricket club established in India?
Answer:
The Calcutta Cricket Club, in 1792.

Question 11.
Mention the place where the origins of Indian Cricket are found in India.
Answer:
Bombay. (Now Mumbai)

Question 12.
Name the first Indian community which started playing the game of cricket in the country.
Answer:
Parsis, the small community called the ZoroastriAnswer:

Question 13.
Who was India’s captain when she played against England in 1932?
Answer:
C. K. Nayudu.

Question 14.
When was the Imperial Cricket Conference renamed to International Cricket Conference and why?
Answer:
In 1965, to scrap the colonial influence.

Question 15.
Who saw in cricket the money-making potential?
Answer:
Kerry Packer, an Australian television 1 tycoon.

Question 16.
When was the first one-day international played and between whom?
Answer:
In 1971 between England and Australia.

Question 17.
When was the first leg before wicket (LBW) published?
Answer:
In 1799.

Question 18.
State two grounds on which Gandhjji was averse to cricket.
Answer:
1. It was a game for the privileged.
2. It showed the colonial mindset.

Question 19.
Mention any four laws of cricket as were written down in 1744.
Answer:
1. Two umpires to decide all disputes when the game was played.
2. The stamps were to be 22 inches high.
3. The ball was to be between 5 and. 6 ounces.
4. Two stumps were to be, 22 yards apart.

Question 20.
Why was ball allowed to pitch through the air rather titan rolling it along the ground in 18th century Britain?
Answer:
During the 1760s and 1770s it became common to pitch the ball through the air, rater than roll; it along the ground. This change, gave bowlers the options of length, deception through the air, plus increased pace. It also opened new possibilities for spin and swing. It also helped the batsman to master timing and sort selection. It was at his time that the curved bat came to be replaced by a straight one.

Question 21.
Describe the changes in cricket rule which occurred during the 10th century.
Answer:
The 19th century saw important changes in cricket history.

These changes include:

• the fule about wide balls;
• The exact circumference of the ball was specified;
• protective equipment like pads and gloves were introduced;
• boundaries came to be known where previously, all shots had to be run;
• overarm bowling became legal.

Question 22.
How do you explain that cricket remained a colonial game ?
Answer:
While some English team-games like hockey and football became international games, played all over theworld, cricket remained a colonial game, limited to countries that had once been part of the British empire. The pre-industrial oddness of cricket made it a hard game to export.

It took roots only in countries that the British conquered and ruled. In these colonies, cricket was. established as a popular sport either by white settlers (as in Soth Africa, Zimbabwe, Australia, New Zealand, the West Indies and Kenya) or by local elites who wanted to copy the habits of their colonial masters as in India.

Question 23.
Explain the fact that the origins of the Indian cricket are to be found in Bombay (Mumbai).
Answer:
The origins of’Indian cricket, that is cricket played by Indians are to be found in Bombay and the first Indian community to start playing the game was the small community of Zoroastrians, the Parsis. Brought into close contact with the British because of their interest in trade and the first Indian community to westernize, the Parsis founded the first Indian cricket club, the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay in 1848. Parsi clubs were founded and sponsored by Parsi businessmen like the Tatas and the Wadias.

Question 24.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi condemn Pentangular as a communally divisive competition?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi condemned the quadrangular or the pentangular tournament a communally divisive competition because cricket had been organized in India on communal and racial lines. The teams that played colonial India’s greatest and most famous first-class cricket tournament did not represent regions, as teams in today’s Ranjit Trophy currently do, but religious communities.

The tournament was initially called the Quadrangular because it was played by four teams: the Europeans, the Parsis, the Hindus, and the Muslims. It later became the Pentangular when a fifth team was added, namely, the Rest, which comprised all the communities left over such as the Indian ChristiAnswer: For example, Vijay Hazare, a Christian, played for the Rest.

Question 25.
State briefly Gandhiji’s views on the colonial port such as cricket and football.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhiji believed that sport was essential for creating a balance between body and the mind. However, he often emphasized that games like cricket and hockey were imported into India by the British and were replacing traditional games. Such games as cricket, hockey, football and tennis were for the privileged, he believed. They showed a colonial mindset and were a less effective education than the simple exercise of those working on the land.

Question 26.
How has television coverage changed’ cricket? Explain.
Answer:
Television coverage changed cricket. It expanded the audience for the game by beaming cricket into small towns and villages. It also broadened cricket’s social base. Children who had never previously had the chance to watch international cricket because they lived outside the big cities, where top-level cricket was played, could now watch and learn by imitating their heroes.

Question 27.
Who was Kerry Packer? What were his innovations in cricket?
Answer:
Kerry Packer, an Australian television tycoon who saw the money-making potential of cricket as a televised sport, signed up fifty-one of the world’s leading cricketers against the wishes of the national cricket boards and for about two years staged unofficial ‘Tests’ and One-day internationals under the name of World Series Cricket. The innovations he introduced during its time to make cricket more attractive to television audiences endured and changed the nature of the game.

Question 28.
Why is the 1970s decade significant in the history of cricket?
Answer:
The decade 1970s has been significant in the history of cricket because of the following reasons:
1. The year 1970 was notable for the exclusion of South Africa from international cricket.
2. The year 1971 was remarkable because the first one-day international cricket was played between England and Australia in Melbourne. ,
3. The year 1977 celebrated the 100 years of test matches in cricket.

Question 29.
Write a brief essay on Cricket in Victorian England.
Answer:
The organization of cricket in England’reflected the nature of English society:
The rich who could afford to play it for pleasure were called amateurs and the poor who played, it for a living were called professionals. The rich were amateurs for two reasons. One, they considered sport a kind of leisure. To play for the pleasure of playing and not for money was an aristocratic value.

Two, there was not enough money in the game for the rich to be interested. The wages’ of professionals were paid by patronage or subscriptipn or gate money. The game was seasonal and did not offer employment the year round. Most professionals worked as miners or in other, forms of working class employment in winter, the off-seasons.

The social superiority of amateurs was built into the custom:
of cricket. Amateurs were called Gentlemen while professionals had to be content with being described as Players. They even entered the ground from different entrances. The social superiority of the amateur was also the reason that the captain of a cricket team was traditionally a. batsman; not because batsmen were naturally better captains but because they were generally Gentlemen.

Question 30.
Why did cricket become popular in the Caribbean countries?
Answer:
Despite the exclusiveness of the white cricket elite in the West Indies/the game became hugely popular in the Caribbean. Success at cricket became a measure of racial equality and political progress. At the time of their independence, many of the. political leaders of Caribbean countries like Forbes Burnham and Eric Williams saw in the game a chance for self-respect and international standing.

When the West Indies won its first Test series against England in 1950, it was celebrated as a national achievement, as a way of demonstrating that West Indians were the equals of white Englishmen. There were two ironies tq this great victory. One, the West Indian team that won was captained by a white player. The first time a black player led the West Indies Test team was in 1960 when Frank Worrell was named captain. And two, the West Indies cricket team represented not one nation but several dominions that later became independent countries.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with words given in the bracket:
(i) Palwankar Baloo and Vithal were ………….. (brothers, cousins)
(ii) The Oriental Cricket Club was …………….
(iv) Vijay Hazare was an Indian ……………. (European, Christan)
Answer:
(i) brothers
(ii) Bombay
(iii) Parsis
(iv) Christian

Question 2.
Mark right (V) or wrong (x) in the following:
(i) cricket was first played in rural America.
(ii) The Laws of Cricket were written in1844.
(iii) MCC stands for Melbourne Cricket Club.
(iv) Vijay Hazare was an Indian Christian.
Answer:
(i) (✗)
(ii) (✗)
(iii) (✗)
(iv) (✓).

Question 3.
Choose the correct answer from among the four alternatives given below:
(i) The two sets of stumps are apart:
(a) 20 yards
(b) 21 yards
(c) 22 yards
(d) 23 yards
Answer:
(c) 22 yards

(ii) The world’s first cricket club was formed in:
(a) London
(b) Hambledon
(c) Washington
(d) Melbourne
Answer:
(b) Hambledon

(iii) Dennis Lillee, the cricket player, belongs to:
(a) England
(b) New Zealand
(c) Australia
(d) South Africa
Answer:
(c) Australia

(iv) C. K. Nayudu was India’s Test Captain in:
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
(d) 1933
Answer:
(c) 1932

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers

HBSE 9th Class Social Science History Peasants and Farmers TextBook Questions and Answers

Peasants And Farmers Class 9 HBSE History Question 1.
Explain briefly what the open field system meant to rural people in eighteenth-century England. Look at the system from the point of view of:
(i) A rich farmer
(ii) A laborer
(iii) A peasant woman.
Answer:
(i) A Rich Farmer-The open field system, as it prevailed in 18th century England meant for a rich farmer to cultivate on its own allotted strip, everyone having his own, a mix of good and bad land:
(ii) A Labourer-A laborer looked at the open field system as a wage-earner. He would get the value of his labor without being exploited.
(iii) A Peasant Woman-The peasant woman, in the open field system, would help the peasant, worked for him in the household, and collected fuelwood for fire, and. fruit for food.

Peasants And Farmers Class 9 Questions And Answers HBSE History Question 2.
Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England.
Answer:
The following are some of the factors which led to the enclosures in England.
1. When the price of wool Went up in the world market in the sixteenth century, rich farmers Wanted to expand wool production to earn profits.

2. The rich farmers thought that the improved breeding of sheep would help them earn more profit. So they drought the compact blocks of land were more profitable.

3. Dividing and: enclosing the common land and building hedges around their holdings were measures that made enclosures possible.

4. Rich farmers drove out the poor villagers who had small cottages on the common land, preparing, ground for the enclosures.

Question 3.
Why were the threshing machines opposed by the poor in England?
Answer:
The poor in England were opposed to the use of threshing machines because they would, oust them of their jobs, and create, in the process, unemployment

Question 4.
Who was Captain Swing? What did the name symbolise or represent?
Answer:
Captain Swing was a mythic name. The name symbolised or represented a leader who was opposed to the use of threshing machines, in wheat production. As the threshing machines would throw thousands of poor peasants and labourers out of job, Captain Swing and his rioters used violence to show their anger and opposition for the threshing machines.

Question 5.
What was the impact of the westward Expansion of settlers in the USA ?
Answer:
The impact of the westward expansion of settlers in the USA was very significance. As. the: settlers moved westward, they established control up to the west coast, and in the process, drove and displaced the local tribes, carving the entire landscape into different agricultural belts. As a result of these agricultural belts, the US dominated the world market’in agricultural produce.

Question 6.
What were the advantages and disadvantages of the use of mechanical harvesting machines in the USA ?
Answer:
Advantages:
By the mechanical harvesting machines, used in the USA, about 500 acres of wheat of could b’e harvested in two week’s time. These also helped the farmers to clear large tracts, break up the soil, remove the grass and prepare the ground for cultivation. With power-driven machinery, four men could plough, seed an harvest 2000 to 4000 acres of whea.t in a season,

Disadvantages:
Such machines meant misery for the poorer farmers. The poorer farmers bought these machines on credit; they could not pay back the loan as the prices of the wheat did not rise as they had expected. They had to desert their small farms and looked for jobs elsewhere. Thus, for poorer peasants, these machines were a liability.

Question 7.
What lessons can we draw from the conversion of the countryside in the USA from a bread basket to a dust bowl?
Answer:
The conversion of the countryside in the USA from a bread basket to a dust bowl give us numerous lessons. Some of these are:

• The entire landscape should not have ploughed over. It was precisely this that brought in black blizzards.
• Expansion of wheat production should not have been a ground to uproot all vegetation, breaking thus the sod into dust.
• The ecological conditions should be respected, or else the nature responds, responds very heavily as it did in the US, turning a land of plenty into a nightmare.

Question 8.
Write a paragraph on why the British’insisted on fanners growing opium in India. .
Answer:
Opium trade with China was profitable for the English East India. Such a trade, for the British, meant huge profits. The returns from opium sale, financed the. tea purchases in China. Hence, the British wanted Indian cultivators to grow opium. But it was unprofitable for the cultivators in India to grow opium.

Question 9.
Why wejre the Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium?
Answer:
The prices given to the peasants for the purchase of opium were so low that the peasants thought it unprofitable to grow opium. The colonial government, on the other hand, wanted to give The peasants as minimum as possible and seek as maximum a price as was possible.

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History Peasants and Farmers Important Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
Who were the small cottagers of . England 7
Answer:
Those villagers who worked on the common land to earn their livings and lived in their cottages close to the common land about the 16th
century England were called the small cottagers.

Question 2.
How was the cultivation done in the countryside open system ?
Answer:
Each Villager was allotted a number of strips to cultivate in a public meeting at the beginning of the year.

Question 4.
What made the rich farmers expand their wool production ?
Answer:
The rise in the prices of wool in the world market made the rich farmers expand their wool production.

Question 5.
What did the British Parliament do for legalising the enclosures ?
Answer:
The British Parliament passed about 4000 acts so to legalise the enclosures.

Question 6.
In which areas did the enclosures happen in England?
Answer:
The Midlands and the counties around.

Question 7.
What hardships did the poor face with the coming of the enclosures ? Mention two such hardships?
Answer:
(i) The poor could not collect firewood from, the forests
(ii) They could not graze their cattle on the common land.

Question 8.
Where is the Great Plain located in USA?
Answer:
The Great Plain is located across the River Mississippi.

Question 9.
Who,invented the first mechanical reaper and when?
Answer:
Cyrus McCofmick invented the first mechanical reaper in 1831.

Question 10.
Mention the time of the black bizzard by Western Kansas.
Answer:
April 14,1935:

Question 11.
Mention the two major commercial crops of the early 19th century India.
Answer:
Indigo and opium.

Question 12.
By which year the British government in Bengal had established a monopoly of trade in opium ?
Answer:
By 1773.

Question 13.
Do you think that the history of modernization is all the history of growth and development?
Answer:
The history of modernization is not merely the history of growth and development; it is also the history of displacements and impoverishment.

Question 14.
Why were there the threatening letters around 1830 in England sent to the rich farmers using threshing machines?
Answer:
With the use of threshing machines by the rich farmers in England in course of their agricultural produce, there were threatening letters urging them to stop the use of such machines. The use of such machines deprived workmen of their livelihood. Most of these letters were signed in the name of Captain Swing. Alarmed landlords feared attacks by armed bands at night, many destroyed their own machines.

Question 15.
What was the reaction of the government in England against Swing’s threatening letters ?
Answer:
Captain Swing’s threatening letters to the rich farmers using threshing machines was creating anxiety and alarm. The use of violence and fire was common in England. Either the farmers broke the machines themselves or these were broken. Government swung into action. Those suspected of rioting were rounded up, 1976 prisoners were tried, nine men were hanged, 505 transported and 644 put behind bars.

Question 16.
What makes the period after 1780s different from an earlier period in English history?
Answer:
In earlier times, rapid population growth was not often followed by period of food shortage. The food production in the past did not expand as rapidly as did the population. But in the 19th century, this did not happen in England. Grain production grew as rapidly as did population. Even though the population increased rapidly, in 1868 England was producing 80% of the food it needed. The rest was imported.

Question 17.
How and why the USA became a dust bowl in 1930s?
Answer:
The American dream of a land of plenty turned into a dust bowl in 1930s with duststorms around. In part they came because the early 1930s were years of persistent drought. The rains failed year after year, and temperatures soared. The wind blew with ferocious speed. But ordinary dust storms became black blizzards only because the entire landscape had been ploughed over, stripped of all grass that held it together. When wheat cultivation had expanded dramatically in the early nineteenth century, zealous farmers had recklessly uprooted all vegetation and tractors had turned the soil over, and broken the sod into dust.

Question 18.
Why were English interested in exporting opium in China?
Answer:
As England was a buyer of the Chinese tea, for tea was a popular drink. England wanted to sell some commodity to China so that tea trade could survive without paying cash. The commodity was opium. The illegal trade of opium was flourishing. By early, 1820, about 10,000 crates were being smuggled into China, 15 years later, over 3,5000 crates were being unloaded every year. While the English cultivated a taste for Chinese tea, the Chinese became addicted to opium. People of all classes took to the drugs-shopkeepers and peddlers, officials and army men, aristocrats and paupers. Lin Ze-xu, Special Commissioner at Canton in 1839, estimated that there were over 4 million opium smokers in China.

Question 19.
Why were the farmers interested to enclose the common land in 16th-17th century England?
Answer:
As the price of wool increased in the world market during the 16th-17th centuries rich farmers wanted to expand wool production to earn profits. They were eager to improve their sheep breeds and ensure good feed for them. They were keen on controlling large areas of land in compact blocks to allow improved breeding. So they began dividing and enclosing common land and building hedges,’around their holdings to separate, their property from that of others.

They drove out villagers who had small cottages on the commons, and they prevented to poor from entering the enclosed fields. Till the middle of the eighteenth century the enclosure movement proceeded very slowly. The early, enclosures were usually created by individual landlords. They were not supported by the state or the church. After the mid-eighteenth century, however, the enclosure movement swept through the countryside; changing the English landscape for ever. Between 1750 and 1850, 6 million acres of land was enclosed. The British Parliament no longer watched this process from a distance. It passed 4,000 acts legalising these enclosures.

Question 20.
Explain as to how the story of agrarian expansion in the USA is closely related to the westward movement of the white settlers ?
Answer:
The story of the agrarian expansion in the USA is closely connected with the westward movement of the white settlers. After the American War of Independence form 1775 to 1783 and the formation of the United States of America, the white, Americans began to move westward. By the time Thomas Jefferson became President of the USA in 1800, over 700,000 white settlers had moved on to the Appalachian plateau through the passes. Seen from the east coast, America seemed to be a land of promise. Its wilderness could be turned into cultivated fields. Forest timber could be cut for export, animals hunted for skin, mountains mined for gold and minerals.

But this meant that the American Indians had to be cleared from the land. In the decades after 180.0 the US government committed itself to a policy of driving the American Indians westward, first beyond the river Mississippi, and then further west. Numerous wars were waged in which Indians were massacred and many of their villages burnt. The Indians resisted, won many victories in wars, but were ultimately forced to; sign treaties, give up their land and move westward.

As the Indians retreated; the settlers poured in. They came in successive Waves. They, settled on the Appalachian plateau by the first decade of the eighteenth century, and then moved into, the Mississippi valley between 1820 and 1850. They slashed and burnt forests, pulled out the stumps, cleared the land for cultivation, and built log cabins in the forest clearings. Then they cleared larger areas, and erected fences around the fields. They ploughed the land and sowed corn and wheat.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose right (✓) of false (✗) form the following:
(i) The earlier enclosures helped the growth of wheat production in England.
(ii) The British parliament passed the enclosure acts so to legalise the enclosures.
(iii) Captain Swing was a real character who favoured the use of the freshing machines in England.
(iv) The white settlers in the USA uprooted the native AmericAnswer:
(v) The opium trade brought for the English huge profits.
Answer:
(i) (✗)
(ii) (✓)
(iii) (✗)
(iv) (✓)
(v) (✓).

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with words given in the brackets:
(i) The enclosure system helped the …………….. farmers. (poor, rich)
(ii) …………… machines were responsible for creating unemployments England. (Threshing, Sowing)
(iii) “Wheat will win war for us …………… said it. (Wilson, Washington)
(iv) England had opium trade with ……….. (China, India)
(v) The Indian cultivators were ……….. to cultivate opium. (willing, unwilling)
Answer:
(i) rich
(ii) Threshing
(iii) Wilson
(iv) China
(v) Unwilling.

Question 3.
Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below:
(i) The following was the leader of the rioters of the thrashing machines:
(a) Captain Swing
(b) Major Swing
(c) Col. Swing
(d) Lt. Swing.
Answer:
(a) Captain Swing

(ii) The white Americans uprooted the following:
(a) Red Indians
(b) White Indians
(c) Blue Indians
(d) Black Indians
Answer:
(a) Red Indians

(iii) Great Agrarian Depression in the USA occurred in:
(a) 1920
(b) 1930
(c) 1940
(d) 1950
Answer:
(b) 1930

(iv) Opium trade helped the following:
(a) Chinese
(b) Indians
(c) English
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) English .

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World

HBSE 9th Class Social Science History Pastoralists in the Modern World TextBook Questions and Answers

Pastoralists In The Modern World Class 9 Questions And Answers HBSE Question 1.
Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?
Answer:
Nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another to earn their living. They do not have a permanent place to live on. With changes in seasons, they change their places. The Gujar Bakafwals of Jammu and Kashmir come down to the plains during winter and climb up to the hills during the summer. In plains, plateaus and deserts they keep moving from one area to another.

The nomadic tribes moved to newer places so to obtain new. avenues for their livelihood The search for pastureland takes these nomads to other, places. The environment is affected and positively affected by such movements. The nomadic and pastoral communities keep clean the environment and remove the harmful from the places, where they stay. They, thus, keep the environment clean.

Pastoralism In India Class 9 HBSE Question 2.
Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the. law changed the lives of pastoralists:

• Waste Land rules
• Forest Acts.
• Ciminal Tribes Act
• Grazing Tax.

Answer:
The colonial government in India brought, during their regime, numerous laws which changed the lives of the pastoralists. This is substantiated by the following:

(i) Wasteland Rules were enacted. By these rules, uncultivated lands were taken over and given to select individuals. In some places, the lands taken over were actually grazing tracts used regularly by pastoralists. This meant the decline of the pastures, and hence problems for the pastoralists who had to either change ^ to other professions of reducing their cattle x- number.

(ii) Forest Acts passed by the colonial government disallowed the pastoralists any access to the forests. Accordingly, their movements were restricted severely. They could remain in the forests for a limited time, and if they overstayed, they were punished. Their use of forests was restricted.

(iii) Criminal Tribes Act was another restriction on pastoralists. The Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 classified certain communities to be criminal by nature and by birth; they were to live only in notified village settlements and not to move out without a permit. The village police kept a vigil on them.

(iv) The colonial government levied a. grazing lax in, mid T9th century. Then , contractors were given permits to collect taxes ‘ and extracted the tax from the pastoralists at their will.

Pastoralism In Africa Class 9 HBSE Question 3.
Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.
Ans.
The following may be stated as some of the major reasons responsible for the loss of grazing lands by the Maasais:
1. With an international boundary between British Kenya and the German Tanganyika in 1885, the Maasai pastoralists were pushed into a small area in southern Kenya and northern Tanzania. The Massai lost about 60% of their pre-colonial land, now confined to an arid zone with uncertain rainfall and poor pastures.

2. From the late nineteenth century, the British colonial government in east. Africa also encouraged local peasant communities to expand cultivation. As cultivation expanded, pasture lands were turned into cultivated fields, in pre-colonial times, the Maasai. pastoralists had dominated their agricultural neighbors both economically and politically. By the end of colonial rule the situation had reserved.

3. Large areas of grazing land were also turned into game, reserves like the Maasai Mara and Samburu National Park in Kenya and Serengeti Park in Tanzania. Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves; they could neither hunt animals nor graze their herds in these areas. Very often these reserves were in areas that had. traditionally been regular grazing grounds for Maasai herds.

Pastoralists In The Modern World Class 9 Notes HBSE Question 4.
There are many similarities in the way in which the modem world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples of changes that were similar for the Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders.
Answer:
There are true, numerous similarities in the way in which the modem world forced, changes in the lives of the nomadic and pastoral communities. The following are the two such examples that were similar for the Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders:

1. The colonial governments put restrictions on the movement of the pastoralists in India and in East Africa so that they coujd not make use of the forests; they were not allowed grazing of the animals; they were not to use the forest land for their domestic purpose.

2. The colonial governments encouraged Cultivation by individual peasants, restricting pasture land for the nomadic/ pastoral communities.

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History Pastoralists in the Modem World Important Questions and Answers 

Pastoralists In The Modern World Class 9 HBSE Question 1.
Who are nomads?
Answer:
Nomads are people who do not live in one place but move from one area to another to their living.

Question 2.
Who are the Gujjar Bakarwals and to which place in India do they belong?
Answer:
The Gujjar Bakarwals are great herders of goats and sheep. They belong to Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 3.
What are burials?
Answer:
Burials are the vast meadows in the high mountains.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Bhabar?
Answer:
Bhabar is a dry forested area below the foothills of Garhwal and Kurhaus.

Question 5.
Who are the Dhangars?
Answer:
The Dhangars were an important pastoral community, of Maharashtra.

Question 6.
What are the economic activities of the Dhangars?
Answer:
Most of the fhoOhasvgats ate shepherds, some are blanket weavers and others are buffalo herders.

Question 7.
Mention the usual activities of the Gollas, the Kurumas, and the Kurubas.
Answer:
The Gollas herd the cattle, the Kurumas and the Kurubas reared sheep and goats and sold women blankets.

Question 8.
What do the Raikas do?
Answer:
The Raikas of Rajasthan usually combines cultivation with pastoralism.

Question 9.
Why are certain rights called customary rights?
Answer:
Those rights possessed by the people through customs and traditions are called customary rights.

Question 10.
Which forests are described as ‘Reserved Forests’?
Answer:
Reserved forests are. those which are permanently earmarked either to the production of timber or other forest produce. Grazing is seldom
allowed in such forests.

Question 11.
Which forests are described as ‘Protected Forests’?
Answer:
Protected forests are those in which grazing rights are allowed subject to a few minor restrictions. ,

Question 12.
When was the Criminal Tribes Act passed by the colonial government?
Answer:
The colonial government passed the Criminal Tribes Act in 1871.

Question 13.
Who are nomads? How do they live?
Answer:
Nomads are people who do not live in one place. They move from place fo place to earn their living. In many parts of India, we see the nomads on the move with their herds of goats, and sheep, or camel and cattle.

Question 14.
Write a brief note about the Guj jar Bakarwals.
Answer:
The Gujjar Bakarwals is a nomadic community. It belongs to Jammu and Kashmir. They move between their summer and winter grazing grounds. In winter, when the high mountains are covered with snow, they come to live with their herds in the low hills of the Shiwalik range and enter the valley of Kashmir. With the onset of summer, the snow melt and the mountainsides arelush green. By end September the Bakarwals are on the move, again, this time on their downwards journey, back to their winter base.

Question 15.
Bring out the factors through which pastoral groups could sustain their life in different conditions.
Answer:
The life of the pastoral groups is sustained through a host of factors. These groups alone have to judge how long the herds could stay in one area and know where they could find water and pasture. They need to calculate the timing of their movements and ensure that they could move through different territories. They have to set up a relationship with farmers on the way, so that the herds could graze in harvested fields and manure the soil. They combine a range of different activities-cultivation, trade, and herding-to, make their living.

Question 16.
How did the changes brought out by the colonial government affect the lives of pastoralists?
Answer:
The colonial government made changes that affected the lives of the pastoralists. When grazing lands were taken avvay and turned into cultivated fields, the ‘available area of pasture land declined. Similarly, the reservation of forests meant that shepherds and cattle herders could no longer freely pasture their cattle in the forests. As pasturelands disappeared under the plow, the existing animal stock had to feed on whatever grazing land remained. This led to continuous intensive grazing of these pastures. Underfed cattle died in large numbers during, scarcities and famines.

Question 17.
Write a brief note on pastoralism in Africa.
Answer:
Africa is a continent where over half of the world’s pastoral population lives. Even today, over 22 million Africans depend, directly or indirectly, on some form of pastoral activity for their livelihood, They include communities like Bedouins, Berbers, Maasai, Somali, Boran and Turkana. Most of them now live in the semi-arid grasslands or arid deserts where rainfed agriculture is difficult.

They raise cattle, camels, goats, sheep and donkeys; and they sell milk, meat, animal skin and wool. Some also earn through trade and transport, others combine pastoral activity with agriculture; still others do a variety of odd jobs to supplement their meagre and uncertain earnings from pastoralism.

Question 18.
Explain the word ‘Maasai’.
Answer:
The title Maasai derives from the world Maa. Maa-sai ‘My People’. The Maasai are traditionally nomadic and pastoral people who depend on milk and meat for subsistence.

Q.19.
Briefly describe the life, of the Gujars of Kangra.
Answer:
The Gujars of Kangra are a pastrol tribe. They cultivate scarcely at ail. The Guddis keep flock of sheep and goats and the Gujar’s, wealth consists of buffaloes. These people live in the skirts of the forests, and maintain their existence exclusively by the sale of the milk, ghee, and other produce of their herds. The men graze the cattle, and frequently lie out for weeks in the woods tending their herds.

The women move to the markets e very morning with baiskets on their heads, with little earthen pots filled with milk, butter-milk and ghee, each of these pots containing the proportion required for a day’s meal. During the hot weather, the Gujars usually drive their herds to the Upper range, where the buffaloes rejoice in the rich grass which the rains bring forth and at the same time attain conditions from the temperate climate and the immunity from venomous flies that torment their existence in the plains.

Question 20.
How did the Dhangars live their life ? Explain.
Answer:
The Dhangars are a nomadic community of Maharashtra. In the early twentieth century their population in this region whs estimated to be 467,000. Most of them were shepherds, some were blanket weavers, and still others were buffalo herders. The Dhangar shepherds stayed in the central plateau of Maharashtra during the monsoon. This was a semi-arid region with low rainfall and poor soil.

It was covered with thorny scrub. In the monsoon this tract became a vast grazing ground for the Dhangar flocks. By October the Dahangars harvested their bajra and started on their move west. After a march of about a month they reached the Konkan. This was a flourishing agricultural tract with high rainfall and rich soil. Here the shepherds were welcomed by Konkani peasants. After the kharif harvest was cut at this time, the fields had to be fertilized and madeready for the rabi harvest.

Dhangar flocks manured the fields and fed on the stubble. The Kbnkani peasants also gave supplies of rice which the shepherds took back to tire plateau where gram was scarce. With the onset of the monsoon, the Dhangars left the Konkan and the coastal areas with their flocks and, returned to their settlements on the dry plateau.

Question 21.
What was the grazing tax? How did the colonial government extract such a -tax from the pastoral communities?
Answer:
The colonial government, in India as elsewhere, looked for any and every possible source of taxation. So tax was imposed on land, on canal water, On salt, on trade goods; and even on animals. Pastoralists had to pay tax on every animal they grazed on the pastures. In most pastoral tracts of India, a grazing tax was introduced in the mid-nineteenth century. The tax per head of cattle went up rapidly and the system of the collection was made increasingly efficient.

In the decades between the 185s and 1880s the right to collect the tax was auctioned out to contractors. These contractors tried to extract as high a tax as they could to recover the money they had paid to the state and earn/ as much profit as they could within the year.

By the 1980s the government began collecting taxes directly from the pastoralists. Each of them was given a pass. To enter a grazing tract, a cattle herder had to show the pass and pay the tax. The number of cattle heads he had and the amount of tax he paid was entered on the pass.

Question 22.
What were the measures introduced by the British in Maasai ?
Answer:
To administer the affairs of the Maasai, the British introduced a series of measures that had important implications. They appointed chiefs of different sub-groups of Maasai, who were made responsible for the affairs of the tribe. The British imposed various restrictions on raiding and warfare.

Consequently, the traditional authority of beth elders and warriors was adversely affected. The chiefs appointed by the colonial government often accumulated wealth over time. They had a regular income with which they could buy animals, goods and land. They lent money to poor neighbours who needed cash to pay taxes.

Many of them began living in towns, and became involved in trade. Their wives and children stayed back in the villages to look after the animals. These Chiefs managed to survive the devastations of war and drought. They had both pastoral and non-pastoral income, and could buy animals when their stock was depleted.

But the life history of the poor pastoralists who depended only on their livestock was different. Most often, they did not have the resources to tide overbad times. In times of war and famine, they lost nearly everything. They had to go looking for work in the towns. Some lived as charcoal burners, others did odd jobs.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose right (✓) or wrong (✗) from the following:
(i) Nomads keep moving from one place to another.
(ii) The Gaddi Shephards belong the Jammu and Kashmir.
(iii) Dhangaxs were a pastoral community of Maharashtra.
(iv) Rabi is harvested after September.
(v) Raikas are a nomadic tribe of Raj.
Answer:
(i) (✓)
(ii) (✗)
(iii) (✓)
(iv) (✗)
(v) (✓).

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks from the words given in the brackets:
(i) ………….. constitute an African pastoral tribe. (Maasai, Guj jars)
(ii) ………….. constitute an Indian pastoral tribe. (Somalis, Dhangars)
(iii) Kharif is a …………. crop. (spring, autumn)
(iv) Raika Maru are expert in …………… training. (elephant, camel)
(v) Pushkar is in the state of ……………. (Rajashtan, Maharashtra)
Answer:
(i) Maasai
(ii) Dhangars
(iii) autumn
(iv) camel
(v) Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Choose the correct answer from the alternatives below:
(i) One of the following is a pastoral tribe of Jammu and Kashmir:
(a) Bakarwals
(b) Gaddis
(c) Dhangars
(d) Banjaras
Answer:
(a) Bakarwals

(ii) One of the following belongs to the Rajsthan pastoral communities:
(a) Kuruman
(b) Raikas
(с) Goals
(d) Kurubas
Answer:
(b) Raikas

(iii) The Criminal Tribals Act was passed by the colonial government in:
(a) 1869
(b) 1870
(c) 1871
(d) 1872
Answer:
(c) 1871

(iv) One of the following is not an African pastoral community:
(a) Kuruman
(b) Maasai
(c) Boran
(d) Turkana
Answer:
(d) Turkana

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism

HBSE 9th Class Social Science History Forest Society and Colonialism TextBook Questions and Answers

Forest Society And Colonialism Class 9 Textbook Questions And Answers HBSE Question 1.
Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:
(i) Shifting cultivators
(ii) Nomadic and pastorals communities
(iii) Firms trading in timber/forest produce
(iv) Plantation owners
(v) Kings/British officials engaged in a shikar.
Answer:
(i) The shifting cultivators were not allowed to burn, the forests as was the practice traditionally. The colonial rulers thought that such a practice could not possibly provide timber for railway tracks. They also forbade them to burn the forests for fear of fires and flames spreading over to other areas. And then shifting cultivation made for the government harder to calculate taxes.

(ii) The changes made in the forest management during the colonial period put the nomadic and the pastoral communities to governmental regulation, for earlier, these communities used to a trade in forest products such as hides, horns, silk cocoons, ivory, bamboo, spices, fibers grasses, gums etc. Their trade was, to an extent, restricted.

(iii) The trading firms/mostly Europeans, had type benefits, given to them by the colonialists, of monopolizing the trade in forest products. This ultimately rooted the traditionally nomadic and pastoral communities, banjaras especially.

(iv) The European colonialists cleared – large areas of natural forests and gave the European planters at cheap rates. The plantation in tea and coffee and nibble benefitted the foreigners. On the one hand, die colonialists restricted the natives, to desist, the. forests products, and on the other, helped the European planters to make use of the forest areas for tea, coffee and rubber.

(v) At one point of time, hunting was allowed. Tire kings, the Nawab, the British officials indulged in hunting when it was regarded as adventurism. The colonialists did allow this without knowing that they were disturbing the ecological balance. However, in independent India, hunting has been banned; it was banned for the common people during colonial rule.

History Forest Society And Colonialism HBSE 9th Class Question 2.
What are the similarities between colonial management of the forests of Bastar and in Java?
Answer:
The following are the similarities between the colonial management of the forests in Basta r and in Java.

• The people of Bastar and Java resisted the foreigners (the English and the Dutch respectively) the new changes made by the colonialists in forest management.
• The people of Bastar and of Java, in fact, rebelled against the foreigner colonialists.
• In both cases, the colonialists suppressed the uprisings.
• In both cases the forest laws were so made that they went oh to benefit the colonialists and harm the natives.
• In both cases, the timber was used for railway and ship building and, thus, in both cases, forest timber was used for the same purposes.
• In both cases the native labour was exploited by the colonialists as free labour.

Forest Society And Colonialism Questions And Answers HBSE 9th Class Question 3.
Between 1880 and 1920, forest cover in the Indian subcontinent declined by 9.7 million hectares, from 108.6 million hectares to 98.9 million hectares. Discuss the role of the following factors in this decline:
Railways
Shipbuilding
Agricultural expansion
Commercial farming
Tea/Coffee plantations
Adivasis and other peasant users.
Answer:
Between 1800 and 1920, the forest cov er in the India subcontinent declined by 9.7 million hectares from 108.6 million hect¬ares to 98.9 million hectares. This was because of the laws passed by the colonial rulers who made use of forests for their own benefit. They used forest timber for railway tracks and in shipbuilding.

Another” factor responsible for the decline in forest cover has been the expansion in agricultural activities; more agriculture means more clearing of forests. Commercial farming too was another factor. The European planters, in course of tea, coffee and rubber plantains, took large areas of forest coyer; The Adivasis, the nomads and the pastoral communities used the cleared forest areas for grazing and other purposes.

Forest Society And Colonialism Class 9 Notes Questions Answers HBSE Question 4.
Why are forests affected by wars?
Answer:
The World War 1 and II had an important impact on forests. In India the working plans were abandoned and the forest department cut freely trees to meet the British war needs. The timber was used for war industries.

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History Forest Society and Colonialism Important Questions and Answers 

Class 9 Chapter 4 History HBSE Question 1.
How much-cultivated area rose during 1880-1920?
Answer:
The cultivated area rose by 9.7 million hectares between 1880 and 1920.

Question 2.
Why was railways essential to the colonial rulers?
Answer:
For (i) colonial trade
(ii) movement of troops.

Question 3.
Which places did the Indus Valley Railway touch when introduced?
Answer:
Multan on the one hand and Sukkur on the other hand, a distance of nearly 300 miles.

Question 4.
Which places were joined together by the Northern State Railway?
Answer:
Lahore on the one hand and Multan on the other.

Question 5.
Who was Dietrich Brandis and who appointed him?
Answer:
Dietrich Brandis was a German forest expert. The British Government appointed him as Inspector General of Forests in India.

Question 6.
When was the Indian Forest Act passed?
Answer:
The Indian Forest Act was passed in 1865.

Question 7.
Which Act divided the forest into reserved, protected and village forests?
Answer:
The Act of 1878.

Question 8.
Could the villagers according to the Act of 1878, make use of the reserved forests?
Answer:
The villagers could not take anything from the reserved forests, even for their own use.

Question 9.
What is scientific forestry?
Answer:
Scientific forestry is a system of cutting trees Controlled by the forest department in which old trees are cut and new ones planted.

Question 10.
What is lading?
Answer:
Lading is local name for shifting cultivation of Southeast Asia. In Central America, it is called milpa, while in Sri Lanka, it is called Chena.

Question 11.
Why did the colonial government decide to ban shifting cultivation? Give one reason.
Answer:
It was difficult for the government to calculate, taxes on shifting cultivation.

Question 12.
Name some of the nomadic and pastoral communities of Madras Presidency.
Answer:
Korava, Karacba, and Yerukula.

Question 13.
Name the leaders of the movements of Santhal Pargana, Chhotanagpur, Andhra Pradesh who resisted the British colonialists.
Answer:
1. Santhal Pargana: Siddhu & Kanu
2. Chhotanagpur: Birsa Munda
3. Andhra Pradesh: Alluri Sitarama Raju

Question 14.
Who were the Kalangs?
Answer:
The Kalanga were a community- of Java (Indonesia) who were skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators.

Question 15.
“The forest area is. fast disappearing”. Substantiate.
Answer:
The forest area indeed is fast disappearing. Between 1700 and 1995, which may be characterized as the period of industrialization,
13.9 million sq km of forests or 9.3% of the world’s total areas had been cleared for

• industrial use
• cultivation,
• pastures, and fuelwood.

Question 16.
What were the banana republics?
Answer:
The power of an American-owned United Fruit Company to grow bananas on a large industrial scale, in Central America is said to be a banana republic.

Question 17.
Should the land unused be improved or remain with the Aboriginals,? Give your arguments.
Answer:
The land unused remains unproductive. It may be in regions like Central America or Australia. It is important that the land be used or improved upon so to be productive. It is the land that helps us grow crops, and take from it numerous natural resources. The land wasted is the land lost. It is important that people make use of it, and make it productive.

Question 18.
As the oak forests were disappearing, how did England manage to have timber for its shipbuilding requirement?
Answer:
By the early nineteenth century, oak forest in England was disappearing. This created a problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy. By the 1920s, search parties were sent to explore the forest resources of India. Within a decade, trees were being felled on a massive scale and vast quantities of timber were being exported from India.

Question 19.
Write a brief note on scientific forestry.
Answer:
The Imperial Forest Research Institute, set up at Dehradun in 1906, taught what is called scientific forestry. In scientific forestry, natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down. In their place, one type of tree was planted in straight rows. This is called a plantation.

Forest officials surveyed the forests, estimated the area under different types of trees, and made working plans for forest management. The colonial rulers planned how much of the plantation area was to be cut every year. The area cut was then to be replanted so that it was ready to be cut again in some future years.

Question 20.
What were the forest Acts and what characteristics they have?
Answer:
After the Forest Act was enacted in 1865, it was amended twice, once in 1878 and then in 1927. The 1878 Act divided forests into their categories; reserved, protected, and village forests. The best forests were called ‘reserved forests. Villagers could not fake anything from these forests. For house building or fuel, they could take the wood

Question 21.
Give the status of the Bastar region.
Answer:
In 1947 Bastar kingdom was merged with Ranker kingdom and became Bastar district in Madhya Pradesh. In 1998 it was divided again into three districts, Ranker, Bastar, and Dantewada. In 2001, these became part of Chhattisgarh. Tire 1910 rebellion first started in the Kanger forest area and soon spread to other parts of the state:

Question 22.
Men tion the location of the Bastar region?
Answer:
Bastar is located in the southernmost part of Chhattisgarh and borders Andhra Pradesh/Orissa and Maharashtra. The central part of Bastar is on a plateau. To the north of this plateau is the Chhattisgarh plain and to its South is the Godavari plain. The river Indrawati winds across Bastar east to west.

Question 23.
What is deforestation? How has cultivation been responsible for the clearing of forests?
Answer:
The disappearance of forests is deforestation. The process of deforestation has become more systematic and extensive during colonial rule. In 1600 about one-sixth of India’s landmass was under cultivation. Now the figure has gone up to about half. As the population grew, so grew the demand for food, and so began the process of cultivation.

In the colonial period, cultivation expanded rapidly. Two major reasons were:
first, the British directly encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, Sugar, wheat and cotton. The demand, for these crops, increased in the nineteenth century. Secondly, in early 19th century, the colonial state thought that the forests Were unproductive and that land cultivation would not only yield agricultural products/but also revenue for the state. That is why we find that between 1880 and 1920, cultivation area rose by 9.7 million hectares.

Question 24.
Why did the British make use of timber for railway in India ? Explain.
Answer:
The spread of railways, ever since 1850, created a new demand. Railways were essential for colonial trade and for the movement of troops. To run locomotives, wood was needed as fuel, and to lay railway lines, sleepers were essential to hold the tracks together. From the 1860s, the railway network expanded rapidly. By 1890′, about 25,500 km of track had been laid. In 1946, the length of the tracks had increased to over 765,000 km.

As the railway tracks spread through India, a larger and larger number of trees were felled. As early as the 1,850s, in the Madras. Presidency alone, 35,000, trees were being cut annually for sleepers. The government gave out contracts to individuals to supply the required quantities. These contractors began cutting trees indiscriminately. Forests around the railway tracks fast started disappearing.

Question 25.
How did the forest laws bring days of hardships for the villagers? Explain.
Answer:
The villagers had the face the days of hardships because of the stricter forest laws. After these Acts, all their everyday practices-cutting wood for houses, grazing their cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and fishing became illegal. People were now forced to steal wood from the forests, and if they were caught, they were at the mercy of the forest guards who would take bribes from them. Women who collected fuelwood were especially worried. It was also common for police constables and forest guards to harass people for demanding free food from them.

The villagers had to abandon the shifting cultivation, for the government restricted this type of farming due to heavy losses of timber burnt during the process. It felt that land which was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railways timber. When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber.

Shifting cultivation also made it harder for the government to calculate taxes. Therefore, the government decided to ban shifting cultivation. As a result, many communities were forcibly displaced from their homes in the forests. Some had to change occupations, while some resisted through large and small rebellions:

Question 26.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) Dutch Scientific Forestry.
(ii) Sarnin’s challenge.
Answer:
(i) Du tch Scientific Forestry:
In the nineteenth century, when it became important to control territory and not just people, the Dutch enacted forest laws in Java, restricting villagers’ access to forests. Now wood could only be cut for specified purposes like making river boats or constructing houses, and only from specific forests under close supervision. Villagers were punished for grazing cattle in young stands, transporting wood without a permit, or traveling on forest roads with horse carts or cattle.

(ii) Samin’s challenge:
Around 1890, Surontiko, Samin of Randbulafung vilage, a teak forest village, began questioning state ownership of tine forest. He argued that the state had not created the wind, water, early, and wood, so it could not own it. Soon a widespread movement developed. Amongst those who helped organize it were Samin’s sons-in-law. By 1907, 3,000 families were following his ideas. Some of the Saminists protested by lying down on their land when the Dutch came to survey it, while others refused to pay taxes or fines or perform labor.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Select correct (✓) or wrong (✗) from the following:
(i) Banana Republics belong to regions such as Central America.
(ii) Railway tracks required, at one point of time, wooden sleepers.
(iii) Brandis was an English forest expert.
(iv) Indian Forest Service was set up in 1865.
(v) George Yule killed 400 tigers.
Answer:
(i) (✓)
(ii) (✓)
(iii) (✗)
(iv) (✗)
(v) (✓)

Question 2.
Select the correct word from the four alternatives given herein:
(i) Bastar is bordered by the following:
(a) Orissa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Orissa

(ii) Gunda Dhur belonged to the following village:
(a) Bastar
(b) Jagdalpur
(c) Nethanar
(d) Palam
Answer:
(c) Nethanar

(iii) Java is a place in:
(a) Thailand
(b) Singapore
(c) Indonesia
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(c) Indonesia

(iv) The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at:
(a) Hard war
(b) Dehradun
(c) Kashipur
(d) Badali
Answer:
(b) Dehradun

(v) The forest act, first, was passed in:
(a)1864
(b) 1S66
(c) 1865
(d) 1867
Answer:
(c) 1865

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks with the words given in the brackets:
(i) In the Madras Presidency, as early as 1850s, about 35000 trees were cut ………….. (annually, six-monthly)
(ii) Brandis was a …………. forest expert. (German, Brazilian)
(iii) The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at Dehradun in ………… (1905,1906)
(iv) George Yule was a …………. administrator. (German, Dutch)
Answer:
(i) annually
(ii) German
(iii) 1906
(iv) British.

Haryana State Board HBSE 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 9th Class Social Science Solutions History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

HBSE 9th Class Social Science History Nazism and the Rise of Hitler TextBook Questions and Answers

HBSE 9th Class History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Question 1.
Describe the problems faced by the VVeimer Republic.
Answer:
The following were the problems faced by the Weimer Republic.
1. Economic Crisis – Immediately after World War I, both the people and the government faced adverse economic problems. Industrial development was low; agriculture was in a bad shape and the German mark began to fall. Inflation rose high; unemployment was unprecedented; loan raised during the war was to be paid in gold.

2. Reparation – Germany was declared war guilty. She Was to pay the huge war bill. The Weimer Republic inherited this problem; it Was to pay 6 billion pounds. As Germany’s economic position was dwindling, it was not possible for her to pay the annual installment, that she was to pay to the victorious: countries.

3. Adverse effects of War – The Weimer Republic had to face the adverse effects of the war. The Weimer Republic lost her overseas territories; her forces were reduced to the point of national security.

4. Political Radicalism – The Weimer Republic witnessed a revolutionary, uprising of the Spartacist League who wanted Germany to have Soviet-style governance; their opponents wanted to make Germany a democratic state.

Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler History HBSE 9th Class Question 2.
Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930.
Answer:
Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930. The Nazis promised the people of Germany to get them everything they lost during World War I. They inculcated in them the spirit of German nationalism, restoring the dignity of the German people. They also promised employment and all economic recovery. They assured them that they would weed out all foreign influences and resist all foreign conspiracies against Germany.

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Chapter 3 HBSE 9th Class History Question 3.
What are the peculiar features of Nazi thinking?
Answer:
The chief features of Nazi thinking can be stated as under:

• The state is above all. According to fo this Nazi philosophy, “People exist for the state rather the state, for the people.”
• It was in favor of ending all types of parliamentary institutions and glorifying the rule of a great leader.
• It extolled war and glorified the use of force.
• It was in favor of completely rooting out liberalism, socialism, and communism.
• It preached extreme hatred against the German Jews who were responsible, for the economic misery of the people.
• It was in favor of crushing any types of opposition and all sorts of party formations.
• It aimed at increasing the German empire and acquiring all the colonies which she had been occupying before the war.
• It aimed at increasing the German military power and wanted to increase the German influence all over the world.

Question 4.
Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating hatred for the Jews.
Answer:
Nazi propaganda was very effective in creating hatred for the Jews. The Jews were projected as undesirable. They were accused of killing Christ; dubbed as ritual, murderers and usurers. Accordingly, they were thought to be the enemies of the Germans and hence were to be condemned to death camps. Hitler thought of the Jews as belonging to the lowest race, and the Aryans, to the finest one.

Question 5.
Explain what role women had in Nazi society. Return to Chapter 1 on the French Revolution. Write a paragraph impairing and contrasting the role of women in the two periods.
Answer:
The role of women in Nazi society was insignificant as compared to men. Women were considered inferior to men in every respect in Hitler’s regime. Hitler thought of German women as bearers of the Aryan culture: He once said, “We do not consider it correct for the woman to interfere in the world of man. He continued saying that the woman gives in eternal self-sacrifice, in eternal pain and suffering.” In Germany, women who produced racially desirable children were awarded, and those bearing racially undesirable children were punished.

As compared to the women of the French Revolution days, the German women of Hitler’s days were confined to the four walls of the house, producing children of racially high quality. The women of the French Revolution took part in public life in so far as they participated in the struggle for liberty and equality. Unlike the wqmefn of Nazi. Germany, the women of the French Revolution days took part in political activities. The German women, during the times of Hitler, were treated secondarily and as second-rate citizens.

Question 6.
In what way did the Nazi state seek to establish total control over its people?
Answer:
The Nazi state sought to establish total control over its people in numerous ways. Some of tire major ways, in this regard, can be stated briefly as under:

• Through the Enabling Act of March 1933, a dictatorship was established in Germany. Hitler got all powers through decrees.
• All political parties and trade unions were banned except the Nazi party.
• The state established complete control over the economy, media, army, and judiciary.
• Security forces were created to control and order society in ways the Nazis wanted. Gestapo, the secret state police, began functioning effectively; it could detain people in torture chambers.

HBSE 9th Class Socia Science History Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Important Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
Who were ‘Nazis’?
Answer:
Persons who had no faith in democracy and socialism and believed in a dictatorship. They were very brutal.

Question 2.
Who was the leader of ‘The Nazis’?
Answer:
Hitler.

Question 3.
Name the party which was founded by Hitler.
Answer:
National Socialist German Worker’s Party (for short, Nazi Party).

Question 4.
When the Nazi Party was founded?
Answer:
In 1921. .

Question 5.
In which year Hitler was appointed as the Chancellor of Germany?
Answer:
Hitler was appointed as the Chancellor of Germany by the President of Germany on 30 January 1933.

Question 6.
What is meant by ‘Reichstag’?
Answer:
The German Parliament was known as the ‘Reichstag’.

Question 7.
In which year Hitler become the President of Germany?
Answer:
In 1934.

Question 8.
Mention the countries and places Nazi Germany occupied between 1937 and 1939. –
Answer:

• Rhineland. (March 1936)
• Austria (March 1938)
• Switzerland (September, 1938)
• Czechoslovakia (March, 1939)
• Poland (September, 1939)

Question 9.
Name the axis powers during World War-II.
Answer:
Germany, Italy, and Japan.

Question 10.
Name the Allied Powers of the World War II.
Answer:
France, Great Britain and later joined
by the USSR and the USA and other friendly nations.

Question 11.
What is genocidal war?
Answer:
The’ vvar Germany had waged against the selected groups and the civilians: of Europe.

Question 12.
Name the treaty signed after World War-I between and victorious countries.
Answer:
The Treaty of Versailles.

Question 13.
Why is called the German Republic called as the Weimer Republic?
Answer:
A national assembly had met at a place called Weimer to establish a democratic polity’. That is why it is called the Weimer I Republic.

Question 14.
Who are called the November Criminals?
Answer:
The supporters of the Weimer Republic were called the November Criminals.

Question 15.
Explain the rise of Nazism in Germany.
Answer:
Germany had imperial ambitions and thus had sought to satisfy her imperial ambitions through war but she had suffered defeat. The outbreak of revolution in Germany towards the end of the First World War led to the collapse of the German monarchy. However, even though Germany became a republic, the forces behind the monarchy – the industrialists, the big landowners and the officers of the army remained quite powerful. The government of the German republic was not able to destroy their power. These forces began to turn to the anti-democratic forces represented by Nazism to extend their power and to check the power of the socialist movement. By 1933, Nazis became the ruler of Germany’.

Question 16.
Discuss the reasons that motivated Hitler to conquer Czechoslovakia in violation of the Munich Pact
Answer:
Germany coveted Czechoslovakia because it was very important due to her industries. The area also had strategic importance of the expansion of Germany in the east toward the Soviet Union. Sudetenland, which was, a part of Czechoslovakia, had a substantial German population. This area formed about one-fifth of the area of Czechoslovakia and had one of the largest ammunition factories in the world. As per the Munich Pact, Britain and France had agreed to Hitler’s occupation only of Sudetenland arid not the whole of Czechoslovakia.

Question 17.
Briefly describe the characteristics of the Weiner Constitution.
Answer:

• A German Republic Federation was to be established in the country which was to be called ‘Reich’.
• The Federal government would have the right to look after safety; education, cinema, transport and some other subjects.
• The fundamental rights Were given to the citizens.
• The men and women of more than twenty years of age were granted the right of voting.
• The real power of the executive was vested in the Council of Ministers which was responsible to the Parliament.
• There were arrangements for a referendum, initiative and. recall in this constitution.

Question 18.
Give an account of the genocide committed by the Nazis.
Answer:
The genocide committed by the Nazis had no parallel in the history of the world. During Hitler’s regime, the number of people killed included 6 million Jews, 200,000 Gypsies, 1 million Polish civilians, 70,000 Germans who were considered mentally and physically disabled, besides innumerable political opponents. Putting to death such a large number of people had required the mass-scale gassing of humans in various killing centres like Auschwitz.

Question 19.
Evaluate the Treaty of Versailles of 1919.
Answer:
The Treaty of Versailles also called peace treaty 1919, was signed between Germany on the one hand, and the Allied powers on the other. The peace treaty at Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating peace. Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 percent of its territories, 75 per net of its iron and 26 per cent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.

The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. The War Guilt Clause held Germany responsible for the war and damages the Allied countries suffered. Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting’ to £ 6 billion. The Allied armies also occupied the resource-rich Rhinelarid for much of the 1920s.

Question 20.
What was the impact of World War I on Europe, and especially on Germany?
Answer:
The war had a devastating impact on the entire continent both psychologically and financially. From a continent of
creditors, Europe turned into one of the debtors. Unfortunately, the infant Weimar Republic was being made to pay for the sins of the old. empire. The republic carried the burden of war guilt and national humiliation and was financially crippled by being forced to pay compensation.

Question 21.
State the two major defects of the Weimer constitution and its effects.
Answer:
The Weimer constitution had some inherent defects, which made it unstable and vulnerable to dictatorship. One was proportional representation. This made achieving a majority by any one party a near impossible task, leading to a rule by coalitions. Another, defect was Article 48, which gave the President the powers to’ impose emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree.

Question 22.
How did the common people react to Nazism ?
Answer:
Many common people saw Nazism through Nazi eyes and spoke their language. They had hatred for the Jews, marking their Jews neighours as suspicious ones.. But every German was not a Nazi. Many organised active resistance to Nazism. The large majority of the Germans’were passive onlookers and apathetic witnesses. They were too scared to act, to differ, to protest.

Question 23.
Who was Hitler ? How could he rise to power ?
Answer:
Bom in 1889 in Austria, Hitler, called as Fuhrer; spent his youth in poverty. When the First World War broke out, he enrolled for the army, acted as a messenger in the front, became a corporal, and earned medals for bravery. The German defeat horrified him and the Versailles Treaty made him furious, In 1919, he joined a small group called the German Workers Party. He subsequently took over the organization arid renamed it the National Socialist German Workers Party. This party came to be known as the Nazi Party.

Hitler was a powerful speaker. His. passion and his words moved people. He promised to build a strong nation, undo the injustice of the Versailles Treaty and restore the dignity of the German people. Hitler devised a new style of politics. He understood the significance of rituals and spectacles in mobilising people. Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings to demonstrate their support for Hitler and instil a sense of unity among the people. The Red banners with the Swastika, the Nazi salute, and the ritualized rounds of applause after the speeches were all part of this spectacle of power.

Nazi propaganda skillfully projected Hitler as a messiah, a saviour, as someone who had arrived to deliver people from their distress. It is an image that captured the imagination of a people whose sense of dignity and pride had been shattered, and who were living in a time of acute economic and political crises..

Question 24.
Describe briefly the policies and programmes of the Nazi Party.
Answer:
The programme and policies of Nazi Party was:
1. To establish a vast German empire.
2. To end up the harsh conditions of the Treaty of Versailles.
3. To increase the economic and military power of Germany.
4. To ban the coming of the foreign influence on Germany.
5. To recapture the lost colonies of Germany in the first world war.
6. Not to recognise jews as the citizens of Germany and to boycott them and not to give them important posts.
7. To put an end to those parties which propagated against nationalism.
8. To oppose communism.
9. Not to set up parliamentary system of Government that was detrimental to the interest of country.

Question 25.
Give a brief account of Hitler’s foreign policy. How did he launch his offences ?
Answer:
In foreign policy, Hitler did acquire a measure of success. He left the League of Nations in 1933; reoccupied the Rhineland in 1936; arid integrated Austria arid Germany in 1938 under the slogan, one people, one empire, one leader. He then went on to wrest German speaking Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia, and gobbled up the entire country.

In all of this he had the unspoken support of England, which had considered the Versailles verdict too harsh. These quick successes at home and abroad seemed to reverse the destiny of the country. Hitler chose war as the way out of approaching economic crisis. Resources were to be accumulated through expansion of territory. In September 1939, Germany invaded Poland. He started a war with France and England. In September 1940, a Tripartite Pact was signed between Germany, Italy, and japari, strengthening Hitler’s claim to international power.

Puppet regimes, supportive of Nazi Germany, were installed in a large part of Europe. By the end of 1940, Hitler was at the pinnacle of his power. Hitler now moved to achieve his longterm aim of conquering Eastern Europe. He wanted to ensure food suplies and living space for GermAnswer: He attacked the Soviet Union in June 1941. In this historic blunder Hitler exposed the German western front to British aerial bombing and the easten front to the powerful Soviet armies.

Question 26.
‘With Hitler coming to the power, democracy in Germany was systematically destroyed’. Explain the statement.
Answer:
On 30 January 1933, President Hindenburg offered the chancellorship, the highest position in the cabinet of ministers,
to Hitler. Having acquired power, Hitler set out to dismantle the structures of democratic rule. A mysterious fire broke out in the German Parliament building. Hitler held the communists responsible for it, repressing them severely. On 3 March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed This Act established dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political; parties and trade unions were harmed except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

Apart from the already existing regular police in green uniform and the SA or. the Storm Troopers, these included the Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD). It was the extra-constitutional powers of these newly organised forces that gave the Nazi state its reputation as the most dreaded criminal state.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct (✓) and the wrong (✗) from the following:
(i) Germany fought the World War I as . one the central powers.
(ii) The defeated Germany signed the peace treaty at London.
(ui) The Weimer Republic belongs to France.
(iv) Hitler was bom in 1889 in Germany.
(u) The name of the party founded by Hitler was popjularly known as the Fascist Party.
Answer:
(i) (✓)
(ii) (✗)
(iii) (✗)
(iv) (✗)
(y) (✓)

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks from the words given in the brackets:
(i) …………. was a nation fought as the allied power. (Britain, Germany)
(ii) ………… Adolf Hitler wrote the book, called (Doctrine of Fascism, Mein Kampf)
(iii) The Nazi party was opposed to the ……….. (Jews, Aryans)
(iv) Reichstag was the name of the …………….. parliament (French, German)
(v) The Treaty of Versailles was signed in …………. (1918,1919)
Answer:
(f) Britain
(ii) Mein Kampf
(iii) Jews,
(iv) German
(vi) 1919.

Question 3.
Select the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:
(i) Sudetenland, a part of the following, was taken away by Germany through the Munich Pact:
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Czechoslovakia
(c) France
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Czechoslovakia

(ii) Germany attacked the USSR in the following year:
(a) May, 1941
(b) June, 1941
(e) July 1941
(d) August 1941
Answer:
(b) June, 1941

(iii) The USA had bombed Hiroshima and Nagasaki which are the two cities of the following:
(a) China
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d) Italy
Answer:
(c) Japan

(iv) Hitler was a racist and was influenced by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Marx
(c) Hegal
(d) Rousseau
Answer:
(a) Darwin

(v) The war criminals were tried at the following place:
(a) Berlin
(b) Bonn
(c) Nuremberg
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Nuremberg

(vi) Hitler became chanceller of Germany in:
(a) 1933
(b) 1934
(c) 1935
(d) 1936
Answer:
(a) 1933

(vii) According to the. Nazi propaganda, one of the dangers was the German capitalism, the following was the other:
(a) Bolshevism
(b) Anarchism
(c) Liberalism
(d) None of the these
Answer:
(a) Bolshevism