Author name: Prasanna

Haryana State Board HBSE 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 5 सांतत्य तथा अवकलनीयता Ex 5.2 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 5 सांतत्य तथा अवकलनीयता Ex 5.2

Haryana State Board HBSE 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक विविध प्रश्नावली Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक विविध प्रश्नावली

Haryana State Board HBSE 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक Ex 4.6 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक Ex 4.6

Haryana State Board HBSE 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक Ex 4.5 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक Ex 4.5

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europ Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europ

Multiple Choice Questions

Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europ HBSE 10th Class Important Questions and Answers Question 1.
The French artist, who prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘Democratic and Social Republics’ was:
(a) Carl Welcker
(b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Jacob Grimm
(d) Wilhelm Grimm.
Answer:
(b) Frederic Sorrieu

HBSE 10th Class Important Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Question 2.
Who was Ernst Renan?
(a) A French Philosopher
(b) A French artist
(c) A revolutionary
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) A French Philosopher

Chapter 1 Important Questions and Answers HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
In which of the following years, was the Civil Code, also known as the Napoleonic Code, framed?
(a) 1889
(b) 1804
(c) 1815
(d) 1813.
Answer:
(b) 1804

Question 4.
In which classes of Europe was the idea of national unification popularised ?
(a) Aristocratic class
(b) Business class
(c) Labour class
(d) Middle class.
Answer:
(d) Middle class.

Question 5.
The word ‘Liberalism’ derived from the Latin word ‘liber’ which means:
(a) slave
(b) freedom
(c) right
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(b) freedom

Question 6.
In which year was a custom union or ‘Zollverein’ formed at the initiative of Prussia?
(a) 1934
(b) 1950
(c) 1834
(d) 1813.
Answer:
(c) 1834

Question 7.
In which of the following years was the Vienna Peace Treaty organized?
(a) 1834
(b) 1813
(c) 1815
(d) 1915.
Answer:
(c) 1815

Question 8.
A political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs, and preferred gradual development to quick change is known as:
(a) Socialism
(b) Conservatism
(c) Capitalism
(d) Liberalism.
Answer:
(b) Conservatism

Question 9.
Who among the following established the organisation named ‘Young Italy’?
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Frederic Sorrieu
(d) Grimm Fairytales.
Answer:
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini

Question 10.
Who was Giuseppe Mazzini ?
(a) A French revolutionary
(b) An Italian revolutionary
(c) A British revolutionary
(d) A German revolutionary.
Answer:
(b) An Italian revolutionary

Question 11.
In which of the following years was the Frankfurt Parliament convened in St. Paul’s Church?
(a) 1848
(b) 1842
(c) 1925
(d) 1821
Answer:
(a) 1848

Question 12.
The movement of unification of Italy was led by:
(a) Emmanuel
(b) Bismarck
(c) Cavour
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(c) Cavou

Question 13.
Who was proclaimed the king of unified Italy in 1861?
(a) Emmanuel II
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) William I
(d) Bismark
Answer:
(a) Emmanuel II

Question 14.
Who is the most popular among the freedom fighters of Italy?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Cavour
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi

Question 15.
In which of the following years was the “Act of Union” signed between England and Scotland, that resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain?
(a) 1905
(b) 1938
(c) 1707
(d) 1798.
Answer:
(c) 1707

Question 16.
Which of the following countries was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801?
(a) Belgium
(b) Ireland
(c) Germany
(d) Scotland.
Answer:
(b) Ireland

Question 17.
The German oak is a symbol of :
(a) heroism
(b) freedom
(c) slavery
(d) unity.
Answer:
(a) heroism

Fill in the Blanks

1. Frederic Sorrieu was a ………….. artist.
Answer:
French.

2. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the …………. revolution in ………..
Answer:
French, 1789.

3. Napoleon simplified ………… divisions, ………….. the …………. system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
Answer:
administrative, abolished, feudal.

4. ……………. and ………….. were divided into kingdoms.
Answer:
Italy, Switzerland.

5. A wave of ………….. nationalism strengthened the wider nationalist …………… growing at the time.
Answer:
economic, sentiments.

6. The first upheaval took place in France in July ……………
Answer:
1830

7. …………….. forces were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848.
Answer:
Conservative.

Nations were then …………. as female figures.
Answer:
portrayed.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was Frederic Sorrieu?
Answer:
He was a French artist who prepared a series of four prints, visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social Republics’.

Question 2.
What is a utopian society?
Answer:
It is a vision of a society that is so ideal, that it is unlikely to actually exist.

Question 3.
In which year did the French Revolution take place?
Answer:
the french Revolution took place in 1789.

Question 4.
“the people must seize their own freedom.’ Who had given this slogan?
Ans.
Andreas Rebmann

Question 5.
of which organization was Andreas Rebmann a member?
Answer:
Rebmann was a member of a German Jacobin group.

Question 6.
Which social group was dominant in Europe in 18th century?
Answer:
The Aristocracy.

Question 7.
What was the nation-state?
Answer:
The nation-state was one in which the majority of its citizens and rulers came to develop a sense of common identity and shared history.

Question 8.
Give the meaning of liberalism.
Answer:
Liberalism stands for freedom for the individuals and equality of all before the law.

Question 9.
What was Zollverein?
Answer:
Zollverein was a customs union that was established in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia.

Question 10.
Which European powers defeated Napoleon in 1815?
Answer:
Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria.

Question 11.
Who hosted the Vienna Peace Treaty convened in 1815?
Answer:
Duke Metternich, the Austrian Chancellor.

Question 12.
What was the main objective of the Vienna Peace Treaty convened in 1815?
Answer:
Its main objective was to restore the power of monarchies that had been over, thrown by Napoleon.

Question 13.
What is conservatism?
Answer:
It is a political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs and preferred gradual development
to quick change.

Question 14.
When and where was Giuseppe Mazzini born?
Answer:
In 1807 in Genoa.

Question 15.
Name two underground organisations formed by Giuseppe Mazzini.
Answer:
(i) Young Italy
(ii) Young Europe.

Question 16.
At which place was the Young Italy formed ?
Answer:
Young Italy was formed in Marseilles.

Question 17.
At which place did Giuseppe Mazzini form Young Europe?
Answer:
Giuseppe Mazzini formed Young Europe in Berne.

Question 18.
Who were the members of both organizations of Mazzini-The Young Italy and Young Europe?
Answer:
Poland, France, Italy and Germany were members of both organizations.

Question 19.
What did Mazzini believe?
Answer:
Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind.

Question 20.
‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’. Who made this remark?
Answer:
Duke Metternich.

Question 21.
In which year did Belgium break away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands?
Answer:
Belgium broke away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands in 1830. –

Question 22.
Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation ?
Answer:
The Treaty of Constantinople in 1832.

Question 23.
What is Romanticism?
Answer:
It is an artistic, literary, and intellectual movement that originated in the 18th century to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment.

Question 24.
Which philosopher claimed that true German culture was discovered among the common people?
Answer:
Johann Gottfried. –

Question 25.
What were Polonaise and Mazurka ?
Answer:
Polonaise and Mazurka were the folk dances of Poland.

Question 26.
Who led an armed rebellion against Russia in 1831?
Answer:
Poland led an armed rebellion against Russia in 1831.

Question 27.
Who saw French domination as a threat for German culture?
Answer:
Jacob Grimm and Wilhelm Grimm.

Question 28.
Who gained the credit of the success of German unification?
Answer:
Otto von Bismarck gained credit of the success of German unification.

Question 29.
When was the Prussian King William I proclaimed the Emperor of Germany?
Answer:
In January 1871.

Question 30.
When has Germany declared an independent nation?
Answer:
Germany was declared an independent nation in 1871.

Question 31.
Who declared the new German Emperor in the unheated Hall of Mirrors in the palace of Versailles?
Answer:
Kaiser William I of Prussia.

Question 32.
In which year did Napoleon invade Italy?
Answer:
Napoleon invaded Italy in 1797.

Question 33.
Who led the movement of the unification of Italy?
Answer:
The chief minister Cavour led the movement of the unification of Italy.

Question 34.
When did Giuseppe Mazzini seek to put together a coherent program for the unitary Italian Republic?
Answer:
In the decade of 1830s.

Question 35.
Which country has the national anthem ‘God Save Our Noble King1?
Answer:
Great Britain.

Question 36.
When was the United Kingdom of Great Britain formed?
Answer:
The United Kingdom of Great Britain was formed in 1707.

Question 37.
Which country did Marianne represent?
Answer:
The Republic of France.

Question 38.
Which country did Germania represent?
Answer:
Germany.

Question 39.
Name the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871.
Answer:
The Balkans.

Question 40.
Who was broadly known as Slavs?
Answer:
The inhabitants of the Balkan region.

Question 41.
What is plebiscite ?
Answer:
A direct vote, by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Question 42.
What is suffrage?
Answer:
The right to vote.

Question 43.
What was the symbol of the strength of the German empire?
Answer:
Breastplate with eagle.

Short Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
What according to Ernst Renan is the definition of a nation?
Answer:
Ernst Renan was a French Philosopher. According to Ernst Renan, a nation is a culmination of a long past of endeavors, devotion and sacrifice. A heroic past, great men, glory, is the social capital, upon which, one bases a national idea. To have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the present, to have performed great deeds together, to wish to perform still more, are the essential conditions of being a unified nation. A nation is, therefore, large-scale solidarity. Its existence is a daily plebiscite.

Question 2.
What was the Napoleonic Code?
Answer:
The Civil Code of 1804 was introduced by Napoleon. It did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property for all citizens.

Question 3.
What were the reactions of the local population towards the French rule in the areas conquered?
Answer:
Initially, in many places, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of liberty. But, the initial enthusiasm soon turned to hostility, as it became clear that the new administrative arrangements did not go hand in hand with political freedom. Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies, etc. all seemed to outweigh the advantages of the administrative changes and were vehemently opposed by the local people.

Question 4.
Write the chief characteristics of the powerful aristocracy of Europe.
Answer:
The chief characteristics of the aristocracy of Europe are :

• Common way of living a life: The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions.
• Estate owning: They owned estates in the countryside and also townhouses.
• Use of French language: They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society.
• Inter-connected marital relations: Their families were often connected by ties of marriage.

Question 5.
Explain the ideology of liberalism which was developed in the early nineteenth-century Europe. (CBSE, Delhi Board 2020 )
Answer:
The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root ‘liber’ meaning ‘free’. For the few middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasized the concept of government by consent. In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.

Question 6.
What do you know about Zollverein?
Answer:
In 1834, a customs union or Zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states. This union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies, from over thirty, to two. The aim of the Zollverein was to bind the Germans economically into a nation. It was thought to be capable to awakening and raise national sentiments through a fusion of individual and provincial interests.

Question 7.
“Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.” Give reasons. –
Answer:
Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society¬like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family should be preserved. They realized, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernization could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and strong.
Therefore, most European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.

Question 8.
What were the major demands of liberal revolutionaries of Europe in 1848?
Answer:

• Men and women of the liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with national unification.
• They demanded for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles – a constitution, freedom of press and freedom of association.
• Women demanded their political rights.

Question 9.
What were the consequences of the liberal revolution in 1848 in Europe?
Answer:

• The autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
• Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished, both in the Habsburg dominions, and in Russia.
• The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867.

Question 10.
What do you know about Allegory ?
Answer:
When an abstract idea for instance, greed, freedom, envy and liberty is expressed through a person or a thing, it is known as Allegory. An allegorical story has two meanings- one literal and the other symbolic. During the French Revolution, the artists used the female allegory to portray ideas like Liberty, Justice and the Republic. In France, the nation was christened as Marianne, in Germany, Germania become the allegory of the German nation.

Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Through a return to monarchy, Napoleon had no doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the administrative field he incorporated revolutionary principles.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:

• The Napoleonic Code: This Civil Code of 1804 did away with all privileges based on birth. It established equality before the law and secured for citizens, the right to property.
• Reforms in rural areas: Napoleon simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
• Reforms in urban areas: In the towns, guild restrictions were removed. Transport and communication systems were improved.
• Reforms in Trade: Uniform laws, standardized weights and measures and a common national currency were adopted to facilitate the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one region to another.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for the emergence of middle classes in Europe ?
Answer:
The reasons for the emergence of middle classes in Europe were:

• In Western and Central parts of Europe, the growth of industrial production and trade meant the growth of towns and the emergence of commercial classes, whose existence was based on production for the market.
• Industrialisation began in England in the second half of the 18th century, but in France and parts of the German states, it occurred only during the nineteenth century.
•  In its wake, new social groups came into being : a working class population, and middle classes made up of industrialists, businessmen and professionals.
•  In Central and Eastern Europe, these groups were smaller in number till late 19th century.
• It was among the educated, liberal middle classes, that ideas of national unity, gained popularity, following the abolition of aristocratic privileges.

Question 3.
Compare the views of liberals and conservatives.
Answer:
Comparison between the views of liberals and conservatives
Liberals:

• Most of the people of middle classes followed the principle of liberalism.
• Liberalism argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, but did not believe in universal adult suffrage.
• The liberals were in favour of radical changes.

Conservatives:

• Most of the people who belonged to upper classes or associated with them followed conservatism.
• They believed in autocracy.
• They favoured only those changes which could strengthen autocratic monarchies of Europe.

Question 4.
By the last quarter of the 19th century, nationalism no longer retained its idealistic liberal-democratic sentiment of the first half of the 19th century, but became a narrow creed with limited ends. Explain.
Answer:
(1) Nationalist groups became increasingly intolerant of each other, and ever ready to go to war.
(2) The major European powers, in turn, manipulated the nationalist aspirations of the subject peoples in Europe to further their own imperialist aims.
(3) Many great powers were involved in the Balkans power struggle. The Balkan region became an area of intense conflict.
(4) The rivalries among the European powers over trade and colonies were increasing day by day.
(5) There were a series of wars among big powers like Russia, Germany, England, etc. which finally led to the First World War.
(6) The German confederation of thirty-nine states, that had been set up by Napoleon, f was left untouched.

Question 5.
What were the major proposals of Vienna Congress ?
OR
Describe in brief any four features of the ‘Vienna Treaty of 1815.’
Answer:
In 1815, representatives of Britain, Russia, Austria and Prussia met at Vienna, to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.

The major proposals of Vienna Congress were:

• The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was
  restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
• A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent the French expansion in future. Thus, the kingdom of Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north, and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south.
• Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria was given control of northern Italy.
• In the east, Russia was given part of Poland, while Prussia was given a portion of Saxony.
• The German confederation of thirty-nine states, that had been set up by’Napoleon, was left untouched.

Question 6.
‘The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe’. Give reasons.^
Answer:

• In the 1830s, an enormous increase in population was seen all over Europe.
• In most countries, there were more seekers of jobs than the employment opportunities
  available.
• Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums.
• Small producers in towns often faced stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England.
• In many regions of Europe, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues | and obligations.
• The rise of food prices, due to a year of bad harvest, led to widespread pauperism in towns and the countryside.

Question 7.
By giving examples, explain how Italy was politically more fragmented before the unification.
Answer:

• Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire.
• During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states.
• Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon king of Spain.
• Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form, and still had many regional and local variations.

From the above examples, it is clear that Italy was politically more fragmented before the unification.

Question 8.
Describe Count Cavour and the part played by him in the unification of Italy.
Answer:
Count Camillo de Cavour Camilla de was the Chief Minister of the Sardinia- Piedmont (Italy). He was a great administrator and an able reformer. The real credit for the unification of Italy goes to Count Cavour. He dedicated himself to achieve his goal of independence and unification of Italy. For this purpose, he took recourse to shrewd diplomacy. He took sides in many wars to persuade other states like Lombardy, Modena, Parma and Tuscany, to throw off the Austrian yoke and Join Sardinia. Before he died, he had unified the whole of Italy under Sardinia, except the Papal territories of Venetia and Rome. The historians bestow upon him, the honour of being ‘The Bismarck of Italy’.

Question 9.
Explain the role of Giuseppe Garibaldi in the freedom struggle of Italy.
Answer:
Giuseppe Garibaldi (1807-82) was a great freedom fighter of Italy. He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the merchant navy. Garibaldi is known as the ‘physical force’ or the ‘sword of Italy’. He, along with Mazzini, launched the ‘Young Italy’ movement for the unification of Italy. He inspired the Sardinian sailors to revolt in 1835 AD, whose action, however failed.

In 1848 A.D., he alongwith Mazzini, overthrew the Papal authority over Rome and declared it to be a republic. In 1860 A.D., his ‘Red Shirt/troops defeated Austria to secure the independence of Naples and Sicily, which later on joined Saridinia. In this way, Garibaldi’s contribution to achieve the unification of Italy is unforgettable.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the first clear expression of Nationalism that came within the French Revolution in 1789.
Answer:
The details of the French Revolution in 1789 are as follows :
1. Changes brought by the French Revolution: The political and constitutional changes, that came in the wake of the French Revolution in 1789, led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.

2. Various steps were taken by French Revolutionaries: To create a sense of common identity amongst the French people, the French revolutionaries took the following steps :

• The idea of la Patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasized the notion of a united community, employing common rights under a constitution.
• A new French flag, the tricolor was chosen to replace the French royal standard.
• The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens, known as the national assembly.
• New hymns were composed, martyrs commemorated and oaths taken, all in the name of the nation.
• A centralised administrative system was set up to formulate uniform laws for all citizens within French territory.
• Regional dialects were discouraged and French was adopted as common language of the nation.
• Internal custom duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
• The revolutionaries further declared, that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism, in other words, to help other people of Europe to become nations.

3. Influence of the French revolution on Europe : The main influence of the French revolution on Europe was as follows :

• The French revolution developed Nationalism.
• The French revolution gave a democratic theory to the whole world.
• The French revolution helped other people of Europe to become nations.
• Students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.
• The activities and campaigns of the Jacobin clubs prepared the way for the French armies, which moved into Belgium, Switzerland, Holland and Italy in the 1790s.
• The French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism into various countries.

Question 2.
Why was the time period from 1830 to 1848 known as the age of revolutions ?
Explain.
Answer:
Many revolutions occurred during 1830 to 1848. As conservative regimes tried to consolidate their power, liberals and nationalists opposed them. During this period, revolutions occurred in Italy, the German states, the provinces of the Ottoman Empire, Ireland and Poland. These revolutions were led by the liberal-nationalists belonging to the educated middle-class elite.

(1) Upheaval in France:
The first upheaval took place in France in July 1830. The Bourbon kings, who had been restored to power after the Vienna Congress by the conservatives, were now overthrown by the liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy, with Louis Philippe as its head.

(2) Uprising in Brussels:
The July revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels, which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.

(3) Uprising in Greece:
Greece had been a part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greece, which began in 1821 and resulted in the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832, recognising Greece as an independent nation.

Question 3.
Explain in detail the German Liberal Movement of 1848.
Answer:
(1) The German Liberal Movement was led by a large number of political associations, whose members were middle-class professionals, businessmen and prosperous artisans. They all came together in the city of Frankfurt and decided to vote for all-German National Assembly.
(2) On 18th May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in a festive procession with the new constitution to take their places in the Frankfurt Parliament, convened in the Church of St. Paul.
(3) The new constitution was rejected by Friedrich Wilhelm IV, the King of Prussia. He joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly.
(4) The newly elected members never supported the demands of the poor class, so they lost their support.
(5) A large number of women also participated in this movement, though they were not given political rights.
(6) In the end, troops were called in, and the assembly was forced to disband.

Question 4.
How did England establish its supremacy over Scotland and Ireland to build a new British kingdom?
OR
Explain the incorporation of Scotland and Ireland into England.
Answer:
Incorporation of Scotland into the United Kingdom : The Act of Union (1707), between England and Scotland, resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom. The growth of a British identity in the parliament meant that Scotland’s distinctive culture and political * institutions were systematically supressed. The Catholic clans, that inhabited the Scottish Highlands, suffered terrible repression, whenever they attempted to assert their independence. The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress, and large number of people were forcibly driven out of their homeland.

Incorporation of Ireland into the United Kingdom:
Before its incorporation, the country was deeply divided between Catholics and Protestants. The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to impose their dominance over a largely Catholic country. In 1798, after a failed revolt led by Wolfe Tone and his United Irishmen party, Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801, under the Act of Union, 1801.

Question 5.
Why did nationalist tension emerge in the Balkans ?
OR
“After 1871, the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe was the Balkans.” Explain the statement with reasons.
Answer:

• The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation, comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro, whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs.
• The Balkan peninsula had been under the control of the Ottoman Empire.
• However, in the 19th century, with the decline of the Ottoman Empire, the influence of major European Powers increased.
• In the 19th century, the European subject nationalities of the Ottoman Empire broke away from its control, and declared independence.
• As different Slavic nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence, the Balkans area became an area of intense conflict.
• Each power-Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary-was keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans and extending its own control over the area.
• This led to a series of wars in the region, and finally, the First World War.

Map Work

Question 1.
On the political map show the Europe of Vienna Congress 1815.
Answer:

Question 2.
On the political map, show the unification of Germany. Ans.

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 3 Water Resource Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 3 Water Resource

Multiple Choice Questions

Class 10 Water Resources Important Questions HBSE Question 1.
Which of the following is a source of fresh water?
(a) Surface run-off
(b) Groundwater
(c) Both of these
(d) Ocean.
Answer:
(c) Both of these

Class 10 Geography Water Resources Important Questions HBSE Question 2.
Through which of the following is the freshwater continually being renewed and recharged :
(a) Oxygen cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Life cycle
(d) Hydrological cycle.
Answer:
(d) Hydrological cycle.

Important Question Of Water Resources HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
What percentage of the total water exists as oceans?
(a) 20 per cent
(b) 97-5 per cent
(c) 28-60 per cent
(d) 99-10 per cent.
Answer:
(b) 97-5 per cent

Question 4.
What percentage of the earth surface is covered with water?
(a) About 1/2
(b) About 3/4
(c) About 1/4
(d) About 2/3.
Answer:
(b) About 3/4

Question 5.
Which of the following is the reason of water scarcity?
(a) Over-exploitation
(b) Over-utilisation
(c) Unequal distribution
(d) About 3/4
Answer:
(d) About 3/4

Question 6.
Which one of the following is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment?
(a) Multipurpose Project
(b) Dam
(c) Embankment
(d) Bridge.
Answer:
(b) Dam

Question 7.
Hirakud dam is on the river
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Satluj
(c) Narmada
(d) Krishna.
Answer:
(a) Mahanadi

Question 8.
Which of the following is not true with reference to multipurpose river projects?
(a) The building of multipurpose projects leads to the salination of the soil.
(b) These have led to many social movements like Narmada Bachao Andolan.
(c) These increase unemployment.
(d) The big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive rainfall.
Answer:
(c) These increase unemployment.

Question 9.
Who proudly proclaimed the dams as the “temples of modern India” ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Dr Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 10.
On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Dam constructed?
(a)Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Satluj.
Answer:
(c) Bhagirathi

Question 11.
With which of the following rivers is the Sardar Sarovar Project associated?
(a) Narmada
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Kaveri.
Answer:
(a) Narmada

Question 12.
In which of the following states did people develop inundation channels to irrigate their fields?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) West Bengal
(c) Punjab
(d) Haryana.
Answer:
(b) West Bengal

Question 13.
Rainwater harvesting system in mountain regions is known as :
(a) Tank
(b) Guls or Kuls
(c) Canal
(d) Rooftop.
Answer:
(b) Guls or Kuls

Question 14.
In which of the following states is rooftop rainwater harvesting commonly practised?
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Assam
(d) Bengal.
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

Question 15.
Which of the following regions in India suffers most from water scarcity?
(a) Western Rajasthan
(b) North-East States
(c) Flood Plains
(d) Coastal regions.
Answer:
(a) Western Rajasthan

Question 16.
Which of the following is not true with reference to rainwater harvesting?
(a) It solves the problem of water scarcity.
(b) It is an environment-friendly technique.
(c) It is very cheap.
(d) It can be used to generate electric power.
Answer:
(d) It can be used to generate electric power.

Question 17.
Which of the following states is the first and only state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting compulsory for all houses across the state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu.

Fill In the blanks

1. All water moves within the ……………. cycle ensuring that water is a …………. resource.
Answer:
hydrological, renewable.

2. We find that ……………. water resources are being over …………. and have caused their depletion in several of the cities.
Answer:
fragile exploited.

3. Dams were ………….. built to impound rivers and collect …………. that could be used later to irrigate ……….. fields.
Answer:
traditionally, rainwater, agricultural.

4. Irrigation has also changed the cropping ……….. of many regions with farmers shifting to water-intensive and crops.
Answer:
pattern, commercial.

5. The floods not only …………… life and property but also cause extensive soil
Answer:
devastate, erosion.

6. …………… rainwater harvesting is the most common practice in Shillong.
Answer:
Rooftop.

7. Rooftop has been used for collection of ………
Answer:
rainwater.

8. …………… is the first state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting …………….. structure compulsory for all the …………….. across the state.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, houses.

Match the following

Match Column A to Column B:

Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do we obtain fresh water?
Answer:
We obtain fresh water from the precipitation, surface runoff and ground water.

Question 2.
Where and in which form is the maximum volume of fresh water found?
Answer:
Nearly 70 per cent of the earth’s fresh water occurs as ice sheets and glaciers in Antarctica, Greenland and the mountainous regions of the world.

Question 3.
When does water stress occur according to Falken Mark?
Answer:
According to Falken Mark, a Swedish expert, water stress occurs when water availability is between 4,000 and 1,600 cubic metre per person per year.

Question 4.
What are the major reasons for the river pollution in India?
Answer:

• Increasing population
• Urbanisation
• Expanded irrigation,
• Industrialisation.

Question 5.
Where were the evidences of sophisticated irrigation works found?
Answer:

• Kalinga (Odisha)
• Nagarjunakonda (Andhra Pradesh)
• Bennur (Karnataka),
• Kolhapur (Maharashtra).

Question 6.
Who built the Hauz Khas tank in Delhi in the 14th century for supplying water supply to Siri Fort area?
Answer:
Iltutmish.

Question 7.
How are the dams classified on the basis of structure and material used?
Answer:
Based on the structure and the materials used, dams are classified as –

• Timber dams
• Embankment dams
• Masonry dams.

Question 8.
Why did Jawaharlal Nehru proclaim the dams as ‘The Temples of Modem India’?
Answer:
The reason behind it was that dams would integrate development of agriculture and the village economy, with rapid industrialisation and growth of the urban economy.

Question 9.
What are multipurpose river valley projects?
Answer:
These are river valley projects which serve a number of purposes simultaneously, such as irrigation, flood control, generation of hydroelectricity, fisheries etc.,

Question 10.
What is the basic reason behind the movements like Narmada Bachao and Tehri Dam?
Answer:
Large-scale displacement of the local communities.

Question 11.
Why are inter-state water disputes becoming common regarding the multipurpose projects?
Answer:
Inter-state water disputes are becoming common with regard to sharing the costs and benefits of the multipurpose projects.

Question 12.
Name any two states of India which suffer from water scarcity.
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan
(ii) Gujarat.

Question 13.
Name the river on which the Mettur dam is built.
Answer:
Kaveri.

Question 14.
Which states are related to the Krishna-Kaveri dispute?
Answer:

• Maharashtra
• Karnataka
• Andhra Pradesh.

Question 15.
How do people conserve water in hills and mountainous regions?
Answer:
By building diversion channels like guls or kuls.

Question 16.
What are kuls?
Answer:
A kul is a circular village tank from which water is released as and when required.

Question 17.
Name any three states where rooftop rainwater harvesting is practised.
Answer:

• Meghalaya
• Rajasthan
• Tamil Nadu.

Question 18.
Name any two techniques of rooftop rainwater harvesting.
Answer:

• Recharge through hand pump.
• Recharge through abandoned dugwell.

Question 19.
How do people harvest water in the floodplains of Bengal?
Answer:
By building inundation channels to irrigate their fields.

Question 20.
How do people harvest water in the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan?
Answer:
By building underground tanks or tanks.

Question 21.
What is Palar PanP?
Answer:
The purest form of rainwater is known as Palar Pani.

Question 22.
Which area has been irrigated by Rajasthan Canal?
Answer:
Western Rajasthan.

Question 23.
In which state is the Bamboo drip irrigation method prevalent?
Answer:
Meghalaya.

Question 24.
What is River Basin?
Answer:
The catchment area of a river is River Basin.

Question 25.
What is WetLand?
Answer:
A Tract of marshy land is called a wetland.

Short Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
Distinguish between surface water and underground water.
Answer:
Surface Water:

• It includes rivers, lakes, canals etc. found on the land surface.
• It can occur anywhere.

Underground Water:

• It includes wells and tubewells. The water is drawn from below the surface.
• It occurs in areas of soft and deep soil.

Question 2.
What is a hydrological cycle?
Answer:
The hydrological cycle is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere, in different forms, i.e. liquid, solid and the gaseous phases. It also refers to the continuous exchange of water between the ocean, atmosphere, land surface, sub-surface and organisms.

Question 3.
What do you understand by water scarcity? Mention any four factors responsible for water scarcity.
Answer:
Shortage of water, as compared to its demand, is known as water scarcity.

Factors responsible for water scarcity are:

• Over-exploitation of water resources.
• Industrialisation and urbanisation.
• Improper management.
• Unequal access to water among different social groups.

Question 4.
“Growing population is responsible for water scarcity.” Explain.
Answer:
A large population means the use of more water, not only for domestic use, but also to produce more food. Hence, to facilitate higher foodgrain production, water resources are being over-exploited to expand irrigated areas and dry-season agriculture. Over-use by tubewells may lead to falling groundwater levels, adversely affecting water availability.

Question 5.
How is industrialisation responsible for water scarcity? Explain.
Answer:
The ever-increasing number of industries has made matters worse by exerting pressure on existing freshwater resources. Industries require power to run, which is produced from water. Besides this, industrial sewage pollutes water making it hazardous for human use.

Question 6.
“To conserve and manage our water resources is the need of the hour.” Give any four reasons.
Answer:
We have to conserve and manage our water resources:

• To safeguard ourselves from health hazards.
• To ensure food security.
• To prevent the degradation of our natural ecosystem.
• To save future generations from the water crisis.

Question 7.
What are dams? Why are they called multipurpose river projects?
Answer:
A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment. Today, dams are built not just for irrigation, but also for electricity generation, water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control, inland navigation and fish breeding. Hence, dams are now referred to as multipurpose projects.

Question 8.
What is the main difference between traditional dams and modern dams?
Answer:
Traditional dams were built to impound rivers and rainwater, that could later be used to irrigate the agricultural fields. But today, dams are referred to as multipurpose projects, where many uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another.

Question 9.
How are dams classified?
Answer:
Dams are classified according to their structure, intended purpose and height :

• Based on structure and the material used, dams are classified as timber dams, embankment dams or masonry dams.
• Based on intended purpose, these may be single purpose dams or multipurpose dams.
• According to height, dams can be categorised as (a) large dams and major dams, and (b) low dams, medium-height dams and high dams.

Question 10.
Throw light on the major purposes of the multipurpose projects.
Answer:
The major purposes of multi-purpose projects are:

• To provide irrigation facilities for agriculture.
• To control floods.
• To produce hydro-electricity.
• To control land degradation.
• To develop industries.
• To develop water transport.
• To promote fish breeding.
• To manage pure drinking water.

Question 11.
What do you know about the Rrishna-Godavari dispute?
Answer:
The Rrishna-Godavari dispute is due to the objections raised by Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka governments, regarding the diversion of more water at Koyna village by the Maharashtra government for a hydroelectric project. It would reduce downstream flow in both states, with adverse consequences, both for Industry and Agriculture.

Question 12.
What is the need of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
The need of rainwater harvesting is as follows:

• To conserve water
• To reduce groundwater pollution
• To raise groundwater level
• To meet the increasing demand for water
• To avoid and control floods.

Question 13.
Explain rooftop rainwater harvesting technique.
Answer:

• Rooftop rainwater is collected on the roof or a house top by using PVC pipes.
• This collected water is filtered by using sand and bricks.
• Underground pipe is used to take the water to the sump for immediate usage.
• Excess water from the sump is taken to the well.
• Water from the well recharges the underground water.

Question 14.
How does rainwater harvesting system operate in the towns and villages of the Thar Desert in Rajasthan?
Answer:
In the towns and villages of the Thar Desert in Rajasthan, the rain water that falls on the sloping roofs of houses is taken through a pipe into an underground tanka, built in the main house or in the courtyard.

Question 15.
How does the rooftop rainwater hairvesting system operate in Shillong and Meghalaya?
Answer:
Rooftop rainwater harvesting system is the most common practice in Shillong and Meghalaya. Shillong faces acute water shortage. Nearly, every household in the city has a rooftop rainwater harvesting structure. 15-20 percent of the household water requirement comes from rooftop rainwater harvesting.

Question 16.
Mention four factors responsible for pollution of rivers in India.
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for pollution of rivers in India :

• Urbanisation.
• Agricultural modernisation.
• Industrialisation.
• Rapidly increasing population.

Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Identify the different sources of water.
Answer:
Water is an important natural resource. Without water, there would be no life on the earth. Three-fourths of the earth’s surface is covered with water, but only a small proportion of it accounts for freshwater that can be put to use. Rainfall is the main source of water.

Based on the sources, water is available to us in the following different forms:

• Surface Water: It is obtained from rainfall and the melting of snow. All rivers, ponds, lakes and tanks etc. are the sources of surface water.
• Ground Water: A part of the rainwater percolates through the pores and crevices of the rocks into the earth’s crust. It is available below the surface. Groundwater is taken out by digging wells and tubewells.
• Ocean Water: 97.5 per cent of the total volume of the world’s water is estimated to exist as oceans: Although this water is not used like freshwater, but it provides a diverse aquatic life.

Question 2.
Explain the quantitative and qualitative aspects of water scarcity.
Answer:
(i) Quantitative Aspect:
This aspect is related to the availability of water resources. The availability of water resources varies over space and time, mainly due to variations in seasonal and annual precipitation. However, water scarcity in most cases is caused by over exploitation, excessive use and unequal access to water among different social groups.

(ii) Qualitative Aspect:
It is considered to be another situation, where water is sufficiently available to meet the needs of the people, but, the area still suffers from water scarcity. This scarcity may be due to bad quality of water. Lately, there has been a growing concern that even if there is ample water to meet the needs of the people, much of it may be polluted by domestic and industrial wastes chemicals, pesticides and fertilizers used in agriculture, thus, making it hazardous for human use.

Question 3.
Describe some of the hydraulic structures that were built in ancient India.
Answer:
Hydraulic structures built in ancient India :

• In the first century B.C., Sringaverapura near Allahabad, had a sophisticated water harvesting system, channelling the flood water of the river Ganga.
• During the time of king Chandragupta Maurya, dams, lakes and irrigation systems were extensively built.
  Evidences of sophisticated irrigation works have also been found in Kalinga (Odisha), Nagarjunakonda (Andhra Pradesh), Bennur (Karnataka), Kolhapur (Maharashtra), etc.
• In the 11th century, Bhopal Lake, one of the largest artificial lakes of its time, was
  built.
• In the 14th century, the tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi was constructed by Sultan Iltutmish, for supplying water to Siri Fort area.

Question 4.
Examine the importance of multi-purpose projects. Give examples of major multipurpose projects.
Answer:
Multi-purpose projects are of great importance:
(i) These projects are meant to tackle various problems associated with river valleys in an integrated manner
(ii) These projects control floods, check soil erosion, provide water for drinking and irrigation purposes and generate electricity.
A few major multi-purpose projects are Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley, Hirakud, Chambal, Sardar Sarovar etc.

Question 5.
What is rainwater harvesting? Mention the principal objectives of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
Rainwater Harvesting: Rainwater harvesting is a technique of increasing the recharge of ground water by capturing and storing rain water, by constructing structures such as percolating pits, ponds, tanks and check dams, etc. Principal Objectives of rainwater harvesting:

The principal objectives of rainwater harvesting are as follows :

• To reduce run off of rain water into seas and oceans
• To improve the quantity and quality of ground water.
• To meet the ever-increasing demand for water.
• To avoid and control floods. ‘
• To reduce groundwater pollution.
• To increase ground water storage and raise the level of ground water.
• ‘To supplement requirement of water for domestic use during summer and long dry spells.

Question 6.
What is bamboo irrigation method?
OR
What do you know about the Bamboo drip Irrigation System?
Answer:
The bamboo irrigation method (System) is very popular in Meghalaya. It is about 200 year-old-system of tapping stream and spring water by using bamboo pipes. Bamboo pipes are used to divert perennial springs on the tops of hills to the lower reaches by gravitation. The channel section, made of bamboo, diverts water to the plant site, where it is distributed into several branches. If the pipes pass a road, they are taken high above the land on the tree branches. The last channel section enables water to be dropped near the roots of several plants. Thus, about 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe and gets transported over hundreds of metres.

Question 7.
What steps should be taken to conserve our water resources?
Answer:
We must check the fury of floods, more and more dams should be constructed so that extra water is stored which can later on be used for irrigating land, for increasing food production and for banishing famines.
Such rivers which cause floods should be linked with other rivers which usually have very little water in them.
The rainwater must be not allowed to flow into the sea. More and more tanks can be constructed which can be filled with water, before it flows into the sea and goes waste. Some scholars suggest that we should prepare our national water budget just as we prepare our finance budget.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the principal features of the following multi-purpose river valley projects:
Damodar Valley, Hirakud, Indra Gandhi Canal, Bhakra-Nangal.
Answer:
Damodar Valley:

• The project consists of a series of small dams on the tributaries of river Damodar. It has four small dams at Talaiya, Maithon, Pancheth and Mayurakshi.
• All the dams under this project are located in Jharkhand; but Durgapur barrage is in West Bengal.
• It serves Jharkhand and West Bengal through irrigation, flood-control, provision of hydro-electricity and navigation.
• It irrigates 5.15 lakh hectares of land and generates 1,181 MW. of electricity.

Hirakud Dam:

• It is the longest dam in India with a length of 25.8 km.
• It stores 8,100 million cubic metres of water.
• It is located on the river Mahanadi.
• It irrigates 7.5 lakh hectares of area, prevents floods and generates 270 MW of electricity, mainly for Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.

Indira Gandhi Canal Project:

• It is world’s largest irrigational canal, 649 km long.
• It is constructed on the river Beas by diverting the waters of river Beas and Ravi towards river Satluj from Harrike barrage.
• It irrigates 12.6 lakh hectares mainly in Ganganagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer districts of Rajasthan.

Bhakra-Nangal Dam:

• It is the highest gravity dam in the world, built between two hills, about 226 m high from the river bed.
• It is built on river Satluj, near village Bhakra in Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh.
• It serves jointly to cater Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh and Delhi.

Question 2.
What is a multi-purpose project? How can the multi-purpose projects become harmful for the country? Explain with reasons.
OR
Put your arguments against constructing big dams,
OR
Why in recent years, multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition?
OR
What are the reasons for the multi-purpose projects and large dams coming under great scrutiny and opposition?
OR
Write any four demerits of multi-purpose river projects.
Answer:
Meaning of Multi-purpose Project: A multi-purpose project or a river-valley project is such a scheme which serves a number of purposes simultaneously, such as, irrigation, flood control, generating hydro-electricity and tourism, e.g. Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley Project etc. Big dams have caused serious socio-economic problems.

Among these, the more important ones are as follows:
(i) In recent years, multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition for a variety of reasons. Regulating and damming of rivers affects their natural flow, causing poor sediment flow and excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir, resulting in rockier stream beds and poorer habitats for the rivers’ aquatic life.

(ii) Dams also fragment rivers, making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate, especially for spawning.

(iii) The reservoirs, that are created on the floodplains, also sub-merge the existing vegetation and soil, leading to its decomposition over a period of time.

(iv) Multi-purpose projects and large dams have also been the cause of many new social movements like the ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’ and the ‘Tehri Dam Andolan’. Resistance to these projects has primarily been due to the large-scale displacement of local communities. Local people often had to give up their land, livelihood, and their meagre access and control over resources for the greater good of the nation. But, they are not benefitted from these projects.

(v) Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences, like, salination of the soil. It has transformed the social landscape, i.e. increasing the social gap between the rich land owners and the landless poor.

(vi) The dams that were constructed to control floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. Moreover, the big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive rainfall.

(vii) The floods have not only devastated life and property but also caused extensive soil erosion.

Question
On an outline map of India show the major rivers and dams of India.
Answer:

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources World Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources

Multiple Choice Questions

Forest And Wildlife Resources Class 10 Important Questions HBSE Question 1.
The sum total of all the varieties of species of plants, animals and micro-organisms found within a specified geographical region is known as:
(a) Ecological system
(b) Fauna
(c) Flora
(d) Bio-diversity.
Answer:
(d) Bio-diversity.

Forest And Wildlife Important Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 2.
What is the approximate share of India in the total number of species in the world ?
(a) 10%
(b) 2%
(c) 8%
(d) 27%.
Answer:
(c) 8%

Forest And Wildlife Resources Important Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
Species whose population levels are considered to be normal for their survival are known as :
(a) Rare species
(b) Normal species
(c) Endemic species
(d) Extinct species.
Answer:
(b) Normal species

Forest And Wildlife Class 10 Important Questions HBSE Question 4.
What is IUCN?
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
(b) International Union for Conservation of Nature.
(c) International Union for Conservation of Natural Resources.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.

Forest And Wildlife Resources Important Question HBSE 10th Class Question 5.
The species which are in danger of extinction are called:
(a) Endangered species
(b) Rare species
(c) Extinct species
(d) All of these,
Answer:
(a) Endangered species

Class 10 Forest And Wildlife Resources Important Questions HBSE Question 6.
Which of the following species is endangered?
(a) Manipur deer
(b) Indian rhino
(c) Crocodile
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Wildlife Resources Of Haryana HBSE 10th Class Question 7.
What type of species is a Gangetic Dolphin ?
(a) Vulnerable
(b) Rare
(c) Normal
(d) Endangered,
Answer:
(a) Vulnerable

Chapter 2 Forest And Wildlife Resources HBSE Question 8.
Which of the following species is an endemic species of Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) Mithun
(b) Pigeon
(c) Gangetic Dolphin
(d) Wild Pig.
Answer:
(a) Mithun

Important Questions Of Forest And Wildlife Resources Class 10 HBSE Question 9.
Which of the following animals is the fastest racing animal in the world?
(a) Lion
(b) Cheetah
(c) Zebra
(d) Horse.
Answer:
(b) Cheetah

Forest And Wildlife Resources Extra Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 10.
In which of the following states is the Buxa Tiger Reserve located?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
(b) West Bengal

Extra Questions Of Forest And Wildlife Resources HBSE 10th Class Question 11.
In which of the following years was the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act implemented?
(a) 1972
(b) 1973
(c) 1984
(d) 1998.
Answer:
(a) 1972

Forest And Wildlife Resources Questions And Answers 10th Class Question 12.
In which of the following years was Project Tiger’ launched?
(a) 1972
(b) 1973
(c) 1974
(d) 1975.
Answer:
(b) 1973

Forest And Wildlife Resources Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 13.
The species which is endangered because of the use of bones in traditional medicines in the Asiatic countries is:
(a) Lion
(b) Tiger
(c) Bear
(d) Deer.
Answer:
(a) Lion

Forest And Wildlife Resources Class 10 Question Answers HBSE Question 14.
Where is the Sariska Piger Reserve situatd?
(a) Utter Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttarakhand.
Answer:
(c) Rajasthan

Forest And Wildlife Resources Class 10 Questions HBSE Question 15.
In which of the following states is the Periyar Tiger Reserve located?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 16.
To which of the following regions is the Chipko Movement related?
(a) Himalayan region
(b) Island region
(c) Desert Region
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Himalayan region

Question 17.
In which of the following districts of Uttarakhand was the Beej Bachao Andolan imp lemented?
(a) Tehn
(b) Chamoli
(c) Pithoragarh
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Tehn

Question 18.
What is JFM?
(a) Joint Forest Management
(b) Junior Forest Manager
(c) Judicial Forest Management
(d) Joint Forest Means.
Answer:
(a) Joint Forest Management

1. India is one of the worlds countries in terms of its vast array of ………….. diversity.
Answer:
richest, biological.

2. The dimensions of …………… in india are staggering.
Answer:
deforestation.

3. Mining is another important factor behind …………..
Answer:
deforestation.

4. Over ………….. in third world countries is often seen as the cause of environmental …………..
Answer:
population, degradation.

5. Reserved forests are regarded as the most ……………. as far as the conservation of forest and ………….. resources are concerned.
Answer:
valuable, wildlife.

6. ……………. strategies are not new in our country.
Answer:
Conservation.

7. People m the Chota region worship ……………. and ………… trees.
Answer:
mahua, kadamba. trees.

8. …………….. depends on the formation of local institutions that undertake protection activities mostly on …………… forest land managed by the forest department.
Answer:
JFM, degraded.

I Match the following

Match Column A to Column B:

Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is an ecological system?
Answer:
Humans, along with all living organisms form a complex web of ecological system with their non-living surroundings.

Question 2.
What is Biodiversity?
Answer:
The sum total of all the varieties of plants, animals and micro-organisms found in a specified region is called its Biodiversity.

Question 3.
What area of land in India is covered under forests?
Answer:
79.42 million hectare, which is 24.16 per cent of the total geographical area of India is covered under forests.

Question 4.
What percentage of land in India in covered with forests?
Answer:
About 24.16 per cent of land in India is covered with forests.

Question 5.
Give the classification of existing plant and animal species based on the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN).
Answer:

• Normal Species:
• Endangered Species
• Vulnerable Species
• Rare Species,
• Endemic Species,
• Extinct Species.

Question 6.
Name the endangered species of India.
Answer:

• Indian Wild Ass
• Indian Rhino
• Crocodile
• Sangai (Manipur Deer).

Question 7.
Name the endemic species of India.
Answer:

• Andaman Teal
• Nicobar Pigeon
• Andaman Wild Pig
• Arunachal Mithun.

Question 8.
When was Asiatic Cheetah declared extinct in India?
Answer:
Asiatic Cheetah was declared extinct in India, long back in 1952.

Question 9.
What are rare species?
Answer:
Those types of species whose population is very less in the world. They are confined to limited areas or thinly scattered over a wider area.

Question 10.
How many square kilometres of forest area has been cleared for multipurpose river valley projects since 1951?
Answer:
5000 square kilometres of forest has been cleared for multipurpose river valley projects since 1951.

Question 11.
Which disease is cured by the use of Himalayan yew?
Answer:
Cancer is cured by the use of Himalayan yew.

Question 12.
In which states of India did thousands of yew trees get dried up in the last one decade?
Answer:
(i) Himachal Pradesh
(ii) Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 13.
What is the main cause of environmental degradation in third world countries?
Answer:
Over-population.

Question 14.
Which are the major threats to tiger population?
Answer:
The major threats to tiger population are numerous such as poaching for trade, shrinking habitat, depletion of prey-base species and growing human population.

Question 15.
What is Poaching?
Answer:
Poaching is an illegal activity of hunting animals.

Question 16.
What is a National Park?
Answer:
A national park refers to a reserved forest, where natural vegetation and wildlife is preserved in a natural environment.

Question 17.
Name any two Tiger Conservation Projects of India.
Answer:
(i) Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala.
(ii) Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.

Question 18.
Which are the three types of forests on the basis of the purpose of administration?
Answer:

• Reserved forests
• Protected forests
• Unclassed forests.

Question 19.
Which state has the largest area under permanent forests?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests.

Question 20.
What is Chipko Movement?
Answer:
The movement started in the Himalayas to resist deforestation in several parts of the country.

Question 21.
What is Beej Bachao Andolan?
Answer:
A movement launched by farmers in Tehri, against the increasing use of chemical fertilizers in foodgrain production.

Question 22.
What is JFM?
Answer:
Joint Forest Management.

Short Answer Type Questions – I

Question l. How do human lives depend on the Ecological system?
OR
‘Humans depend on the Ecological system for their own existence.’ Explain.
Answer:
Like all plants and animals, human beings are also a distinct part of an ecological system. We, humans, are just a part and very much dependent on this system for our own existence. For example – plants, animals and microorganisms recreate the quality of air we breathe, the water we drink and the soil that produces our food, without which, we cannot survive.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the threats to biodiversity in India.
Answer:
Over 81,000 species of fauna and 47,000 species of flora are found in India. Many of these would now be categorized as ‘critical’, i.e. on the verge of extinction. Among the larger animals in India, 79 species of mammals, 44 of birds, 15 of reptiles, and 3 of amphibians are threatened. Nearly 1,500 plant species are endangered. Flowering plants and vertebrate animals have recently become extinct, at a rate estimated to be 50 to 100 times the average expected natural rate.

Question 3.
Distinguish between Normal and Endemic species.

Normal Species:
(i) These are species whose population levels are considered to be normal for their survival.
(ii) Examples: Cattle, Sal, Pine, Rodents, etc.

Endemic Species:
(i) These are species which are only found in some particular areas which are usually isolated by natural or geographical barriers.
(ii) Examples: Andaman teal, Nicobar Pigeon, Andaman Wild Pig, Mithun, etc.

Question 4
What do you mean by Vulnerable Species?
Answer:
Vulnerable species are some species whose population has declined to levels from where it is likely to move into the endangered category in the future, if not taken good care of.

Question 5.
Write a note on Asiatic Cheetah.
Answer:
The world’s fastest land mammal, the Cheetah (Acinonyx jubantus), is a unique and specialised member of the cat family and can move at the speed of 112 km/hr. Today the Asiatic Cheetah is nearly extinct due to a decline in available habitat and prey. The species was declared extinct in India, long back in 1952.

Question 6.
The expansion of agriculture is an important factor responsible for the loss of forests. Explain.
Answer:
Expansion of agriculture began during the colonial period. Between 1951 and 1980, according to the Forest Survey of India, over 26,200 sq km, of forest area was converted into agricultural land, all over India. Substantial parts of the tribal belts, especially in the north¬eastern and central India, have been deforested by shifting cultivation (Jhum), a type of slash and bum agriculture.

Question 7.
How were forests destroyed by the colonial government?
Answer:
The greatest damage inflicted on Indian forests was during the colonial period in the following ways :

• Expansion of railways,
• Expansion of agriculture,
• Expansion of commercial and scientific forestry,
• Expansion of mining activities.

Question 8.
How are large-scale development projects responsible for the loss of forests?
Answer:
Large-scale development projects have contributed significantly to the loss of forests. Since 1951, over 5,000 sq km, of the forest has been cleared for river-valley projects. Clearing of forests still continues with running projects like the Narmada Sagar Project in Madhya Pradesh, which would inundate 40,000 hectares of forests.

Question 9.
How does mining affect the forests?
Answer:
Mining is a major factor responsible for the loss of forests. This is clear from the following points :

• The mining process involves railways, roads, labour and machines etc. These involvements destroy the forests.
• The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is seriously threatened by the ongoing dolomite mining.
• Mining disturbs the natural habitat of many species and blocks the migration route of several others.

Question 10.
What is the Himalayan Yew?
Answer:
The Himalayan Yew (Taxus wallachiana) is a medicinal plant found in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh. A chemical compound called ‘taxol’ is extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of this tree, and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers. The species is under great threat due to over-exploitation. In the last one decade, thousands of yew trees have dried up.

Question 11.
‘The destruction of forest and wildlife affected the women severly.’ Explain.
Answer:
In many societies, women bear the major responsibility of collection of fuel, fodder, water and other basic necessities. As these resources are depleted, the drudgery of women increases in the following ways :

• Sometimes they have to walk for more than 10 km to collect the above resources.
• Due to extreme hard work, they suffer from serious health problems.
• Increased hours of work causes negligence of home and children, which often has serious social implications.

Question 12.
What are the major threats to Tiger population?
Answer:
Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web. In 1973, the authorities realised that the tiger population had dwindled to 1827 from an estimated 55,000 at the turn of the century. The major threats to tiger population are :

• Poaching of tiger for the trade of its skin,
• Use of its bones in traditional medicines,
• Shrinking of its habitat,
• Depletion of prey-base species, and
• Growing human population.

Question 13.
How many tiger reserves are there in India ? Write the names of important tiger reserve projects and their related states.
Answer:
There were 51 tiger reserves in India, covering an area of 71027.10 sq km.

• Corbett National Park – Uttarakhand
• Sunderbans National Park – West Bengal
• Bandhavgarh National Park – Madhya Pradesh
• Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary – Rajasthan
• Manas Tiger Reserve – Assam
• Periyar Tiger Reserve – Kerala
• Ranthambhore National Park – Rajasthan.

Question 14.
What do you understand by the Sacred Groves?
Answer:
Nature worship is an age old tribal belief, based on the principle that all creations of nature have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form, called Sacred Groves (the forests of gods and goddesses). These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference with them is banned.

Question 15.
What are the main objectives of JFM?
Answer:

• Under the Joint Forest Management Programme, local communities are involved in the management and restoration of degraded forests.
• The major purpose of JFM is to protect the forests from encroachment, grazing, theft and fire, and also to improve the forest in accordance with an approved Joint Forest Management Plan.
• In return, the members of these communities are entitled to intermediary benefits, like non-timber forest produce.

Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question l.
Distinguish between the Endangered and Extinct species.
Answer:
Endangered Species:

• These are the species which are in danger of extinction.
• The survival of such species is difficult if the negative factors that have led to a decline in their population are not checked in time.
• These species can possibly be saved by special conservation.
• Examples : Black buck, Crocodile, Indian wild ass, Indian rhino, Lion tailed macaque etc.

Extinct Species:

• These are the species which have not been in existence for more than 25 years in any part of the world.
• These species have been lost forever or may be extinct from the whole earth.
• These species cannot be reproduced.
• Examples : Asiatic Cheetah, Pink head duck etc.

Question 2.
Differentiate between the Vulnerable and Rare species.
Ans.
Vulnerable Species:

• These are the species whose population has declined to levels from where it is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue to operate.
• A vulnerable species is a step short of an endangered species, which in turn, is a step short of an extinct species.
• Examples: Gangetic Dolphin, Asiatic Elephant, Blue sheep etc.

Rare Species:

• Species with small population may move into the endangered or vulnerable category if the negative factors affecting them continue to operate.
• A rare species is a step short of a vulnerable species or an endangered species.
• Examples: Himalayan brown bear, Asiatic wild buffalo, Hornbill etc.

Question 3.
Account for the factors responsible for large-scale deforestation in India.
Answer:
Deforestation means reckless, unscientific cutting down of trees to clear the forest land for some different use.
India has experienced large-scale deforestation for a couple of centuries now. Some of the major factors responsible for this have been as given ahead:
(i) Construction and Expansion of Railway Network: This required large tracts of land and hence, forests had to be removed.

(ii) Faulty agricultural practices like shifting cultivation: For long time, it remained a usual practice to clear a raw land, cultivate it for a few years and then to move on to another piece of raw land. In this way, large tracts of forest land used to be destroyed.

(iii) Multi-purpose river projects: Large tracts of forest land came to be destroyed due to these activities.

(iv) Mining: Mining operations need big machines, labor, roads, railways etc. All these lead to deforestation. The mining activities have blocked the migration route of several species, including the great Indian elephant, thus disturbing their natural habitat.

(v) Growing Industrialisation and Urbanisation: These involved a change in land-use patterns and hence, the destruction of forests.

Question 4.
“The loss of biological resources is strong!}’ correlated with the loss of cultural diversity.” Explain.
Answer:
The destruction of “‘rests and wildlife is strongly correlated with the destruction of cultural diversity. We can i derstand this from by the following points:
(i) Such losses have increasingly marginalised and impoverished many indigenous and other forest-dependent communities.

(ii) These communities directly depend on various components of the forest and wildlife, for food, drink, medicine, culture, spirituality etc.

(iii) Within these communities, the poor women are affected more than men.

(iv) As the biological resources are depleted, the drudgery of women increases and sometimes they have to walk for more than 10 km to collect fuel, fodder, water etc. This causes serious health problems in women and negligence of home and children because of the increased hours of work, which often has serious social implications.

(v) The indirect impact of degradation such as severe drought or deforestation-induced floods etc. also hits the poor the hardest. Thus, we can say that the loss of biological resources is correlated with the loss of cultural diversity.

Question 5.
Describe in detail the Project Tiger.
Answer:
India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-third of the surviving tiger population in the world. These two nations became prime targets of poaching and illegal trading. ‘Project Tiger’ is one of the well-publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, which was launched in 1973.

In the beginning, it showed success, as the tiger population went up to 4,002 in 1985 and 4,334 in 1989. But in 1993, the population of tigers dropped to 3,600. There were 51 tiger reserves in India, covering an area of 71027.10 sq km² Tiger conservation is not only an effort to save an endangered species, but a means of preserving bio types of sizeable magnitude. Major Tiger Reserves in India include Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala.

Question 6.
Differentiate .between Reserved Forests, Protected Forests and Unclassed Forests.
Answer:

Question 7.
How did the cultural values help to protect nature and its creations?
OR
Nature worship is an age-old belief. Describe how it has helped in conservation of nature and its creations?
Answer:
Nature worship is an age-old tribal belief based on the principle that all creations of nature have to be protected. It has helped conserve the wildlife and natural vegetation in the following ways:

• Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form, called Sacred ™ Groves. These parts of large forests have been left untouched by local people.
• Certain societies like the Mundas and the Santhals worship a particular tree, which they have preserved since time immemorial.
• Too many of us, Peepal and Banyan trees are considered sacred.
• Sacred qualities are often ascribed to springs, mountain peaks, plants, and animals, which are closely protected.
• One can find troops of macaques and langurs around many temples. They are fed daily and treated as a part of temple devotees.

Question 8.
Explain any two famous movements for the protection of forests.
Answer:
Chipko Movement: The famous Chipko movement in the Himalayan area has successfully resisted deforestation in several areas. Chipko Movement has also shown that community afforestation with indigenous species can be made enormously successful. Attempts to revive the traditional conservation methods or develop new methods of ecological farming are now widespread.

Beej Bachao Andolan: Beej Bachao Andolan is a movement launched by farmers in Tehri (Uttarakhand), against the use of chemical fertilizers in foodgrain production. Beej Bachao Andolan and Navdanya have shown that adequate levels of diversified crop production without the use of synthetic chemicals are possible and economicaly viable.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a brief description of the fauna in India.
Answer:
India possesses a tremendous diversity of climatic and physical conditions. As a result, India has a great variety of fauna, amounting a little over 81,000 known species. Of these, insects constitute about 40,000, molluscs a little over 5,000, mammals 372, birds 1,228, reptiles 428, amphibians 204 and fishes 2,546 species.
(i) The mammals include the majestic elephant, the gaur or the Indian bison, the great Indian rhinoceros, the gigantic wild sheep of the Himalayas, the swamp deer, the thamin spotted deer, nilgai, the four-horned antelope and the Indian antelope or black buck.

(ii) Among cats, the tiger and lion are the most magnificent of all. Some other splendid creatures, such as the clouded leopard, the snow leopard and the marbled cats, are also found.

(iii) The abundant and colourful bird life of this country is one of its valuable possessions. Several birds, like pheasants, geese, ducks,
mynahs, parakeets, pigeons, cranes, hombills and sunbirds, inhabit the forests and wetlands.

(iv) Rivers and lakes harbour crocodiles and gharials, the latter being the only representative of the crocodilian order in the world.

(v) The great Himalayan range has a very interesting fauna that includes wild sheep and goats, markhor, ibex, shrew and tapir. The lesser panda and the snow leopard are also found in the upper reaches of the mountains.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Flora and Fauna.
Ans.
Flora

• Naturally grown vegetation of a region or an area is termed as flora.
• About 47,000 species of flora are found in India.
• Flora includes flowering and non-flowering plants.
• It consists of grass, plants, creepers and trees. At present, forests, bushes, shrubs and grasslands make the flora cover on the globe.
• All types of natural vegetation, from tropical rain forests to alpine vegetation, are found in India in the form of flora.

Fauna:

• All types of organisms, ranging from tiny bacteria to the giant elephant, constitute fauna.
• India has about 81,000 species of animals. Besides these, there are 2,000 species of birds and 2,500 species of fish in the country.
• Animals are of two categories on the basis of their food habits. They are herbivores and carnivores.
• Fauna includes all mammals, reptiles amphibians and birds.
• All species of fauna, from tiny bacteria to giant elephant, are found in India.

Question 3.
How are the existing plant and animal species classified on the basis of the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)?
Answer:
Based on the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), we can classify the existing animal species as given ahead:
1. Normal Species: Species having normal population levels for their survival are considered normal species.

2. Endangered Species: This includes those species which are in danger of extinction, such as blackbuck, crocodile, Indian rhino, Indian wild ass, sangai, lion-tailed macaque etc.

3. Vulnerable Species: This includes the species which are likely to be in danger of extinction in near future if the factors threatening their extinction continue to opera. Survival of these species is not assured, as their population has reduced greatly. Examples – Gangetic Dolphin, Blue Sheep and Asiatic Elephant etc.

4. Rare Species: The population of these species is very less in the world. They are confined to limited areas, or thinly scattered over a wider area. Examples – Himalayan Brown Bear, Asiatic Wild Buffalo and Hornbill etc.

5. Endemic Species: Species that are only found in some particular areas are usually iso¬lated by natural or geographical boundaries. Examples – Andaman Teal, Andaman Wild Pig, Nicobar Pigeon, Arunachali Mithun, etc.

6. Extinct Species: Species that are not found even after conducting searches in the areas where they are likely to be found. Examples – Pink Head Duck, Asiatic cheetah, etc.

Question 4.
Write a note on the utilization of forest resources.
Answer:
The forest products may be classified into two main groups:
(i) Major Products
(ii) Minor Products.
(i) Major products of forests include timber and firewood –
(a) Timber is useful in making buildings and furniture. It is also used in building ships, railway carriages, trucks etc. Besides, it is used in certain industries.
(b) Forest wood is used as fuel on a large scale in the rural areas where other fuels are not available.

(ii) Minor products of forests include gum, resin, tanning materials, lac, medicinal herbs, etc.
(a) Resin is used in the production of paints, varnishes and soaps. It is obtained from Chir (Pine wood), growing in the Himalayas. Turpentine, which is also obtained from resin, is used for paints.
(b) Sabai grass is used in paper-making.
(c) Bamboos are put to various uses, including housing and paper-making.
(d) Myrobalans (Terminalia Chebla) grow abundantly in the deciduous forests. They are used in dyeing silk, cotton, wool and skin.
(e) Lac grows in the deciduous forest belts, particularly in palas trees. India has almost a monopoly in the production of lac. Lac is used in the production of varnish, gramophone records and lithographic ink. It is also used in electrical industry. Indian lac is mostly exported to the U.S.A.
(f) Among other products obtained from forests, sandalwood is also very important. Sandalwood is used in the production of sandalwood oil, soap and scents.
(g) Honey, medicinal herbs and fruits are other important products, obtained from forests.

Question 5.
What steps have been taken by the government for the conservation of forests and wildlife in India? Explain.
Answer:
Steps taken by the government for the conservation of forests and wildlife are as follows :
(i) The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act: The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972, with various provisions for protecting habitats. An all-India list of protected species was also published. The thrust of the program was towards protecting the remaining population of certain endangered species by banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats and restricting trade in wildlife.

(ii) National Forest Policy: India is one of the few countries which have a forest policy. There has been a forest policy in India since 1894. It was revised in 1952, and again in 1988. The main plank of the revised forest policy is the protection, conservation and development of forests.

(iii) National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries:
To protect the bio-diversity, the Indian government has established 101 National Parks, 566 Sanctuaries and 18 Biosphere reserves.

(iv) Projects for Protecting Specific Animals:
The Central Government has also announced several projects for protecting specific animals which were gravely threatened, including the tiger, the one-horned rhinoceros, the Kashmir stag or hangul, the three types of crocodiles-the fresh water crocodile, the saltwater crocodile and the Gharial, the Asiatic lion and others.

Map Work
Question
On an outline map of India show the National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries located in India.
Answer:

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 4 The Age of Industrialisation Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 4 The Age of Industrialisation

Multiple Choice Questions

Important Questions On The Age of Industrialisation HBSE 10th Class Question 1.
In which of the following years, E.T. Pauli published his music book?
(a) 1900
(b) 1932
(c) 1939
(d) 1947
Answer:
(a) 1900

Important Question On The Age of Industrialisation HBSE 10th Class Question 2.
What is a word which is usually used to refer to Asia?
(a) Merchant
(b) Proto
(c) Orient
(d) Sepoy.
Answer:
(c) Orient

The Age of Industrialisation Map Based Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, it was difficult for the new European merchants to set up business in towns because :
(a) towns were already flooded with local businessmen.
(b) there Was a scarcity of human labour.
(c) urban crafts and trade guilds were powerful there.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) urban crafts and trade guilds were powerful there.

Important Questions Of The Age of Industrialisation HBSE 10th Class Question 4.
What was the first symbol of the new era in Britain?
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) silk
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) cotton

Important Questions In The Age of Industrialisation HBSE 10th Class Question 5.
The cotton mill was created by:
(a) Richard Arkwright
(b) Richard Jordan Gatting
(c) Alexander Wood
(d) Wilhelm Siemens.
Answer:
(a) Richard Arkwright

Important Questions For The Age of Industrialisation HBSE 10th Class Question 6.
The process in which fibres, such as cotton or wool are prepared prior to spin:
(a) fuller
(b) carding
(c) stapler
(d) spinning.
Answer:
(b) carding

Important Question The Age of Industrialisation HBSE 10th Class Question 7.
Who among the following improved the steam engine produced by Newcomen?
(a) James Watt
(b) Arkwright
(c) Jenny
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) James Watt

Question 8.
In which industry was Spinning Jenny used?
(a) Sugar
(b) Cotton
(c) Wool
(d) Jute.
Answer:
(c) Wool

Question 9.
Which of the following were pre-colonial ports of India?
(a) Surat and Bombay
(b) Surat and Hoogly
(c) Calcutta and Hoogly
(d) Bombay and Calcutta.
Answer:
(b) Surat and Hoogly

Question 10.
Which of the following were the two most important industrial regions of India?
(a) Punjab and Bihar
(b) Bengal and Madras
(c) Bombay and Bengal
(d) Bombay and Madras.
Answer:
(c) Bombay and Bengal

Question 11.
In which of the following states did the East India Company establish its political power in 1760s?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat.
Answer:
(b) Bengal

Question 12.
Trade through new ports of Bombay and Calcutta was controlled by:
(a) Indian companies
(b) French companies
(c) European companies
(d) Dutch companies.
Answer:
(c) European companies

Question 13.
In which of the following years was the iron and steel plant established by J.N. Tata in Jamshedpur?
(a) 1720
(b) 1854
(c) 1912
(d) 1853.
Answer:
(c) 1912

Question 14.
Which of the following images was used on the gripe water calendar for the advertisement of Gripe Water?
(a) Shri Krishna
(b) Shri Ram
(c) Ganeshji
(d) Lord Vishnu.
Answer:
(a) Shri Krishna

Question 15.
What did Manchester industrialists put on their cloth bundles to sell them?
(a) Label
(b) Calendar
(c) Advertisement
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Label

Question 16.
The messages carried out through the advertisements of Indian manufacturers referred to:
(a) Imperialists
(b) Moralists
(c) Nationalists
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Nationalists

Fill in the blanks

1. This ………….. of machines and …………. is even more marked in a picture which appeared on the pages of a trade magazine over a hundred years ago.
Answer:
glorification, technology.

2. In the countryside poor ………….. and …………. began working for merchants.
Answer:
peasants, artisans.

3. In Victorian Britain there was no shortage of …………….. labour.
Answer:
human.

4. The fear of …………… made workers hostile to the introduction of new
Answer:
unemployment, technology.

5. After the East India Company established political power, it could assert a …………… right to
Answer:
monopoly, trade.

6. The first ……………. mill in Bombay came up in
Answer:
cotton, 1854.

7. In most …………. regions workers come from the nearby
Answer:
industrial, districts.

8. Famines did not affect the sale of …………… or ………….. saris.
Answer:
Banarasi, Baluchari.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was E.T. Pauli?
Answer:
He was a popular music publisher of England.

Question 2.
Which music company produced a music book which had a picture on the cover page announcing the ‘Dawn of the Century?
Answer:
E.T. Pauli Music Company.

Question 3.
What is Orient?
Answer:
The countries to the east of the Mediterranean are called the orient. This term usually refers to Asia.

Question 4.
Why was it difficult for the new European merchants to set up business in towns in the 17th and 18th centuries?
Answer:
This was because urban crafts and trade guilds were very powerful in the towns.

Question 5.
Which two factors led to the growing demand for goods?
Answer:
(i) The expansion of world trade.
(ii) The acquisition of colonies in different parts of the world.

Question 6.
What was the use of open fields and common lands for the poor peasants?
Answer:
These common lands were very useful for the poor peasants. They were quite necessary for their survival for gathering their firewood, berries, vegetables, hay and straw etc.

Question 7.
From whom did a merchant clothier buy wool in England?
Answer:
A merchant clothier in England purchased wool from a wool stapler.

Question 8.
Which city of England was known as a finishing centre?
Answer:
London.

Question 9.
Define the term ‘Carding’.
Answer:
The process in which fibres such as cotton or wool, are prepared, prior to spinning.

Question 10.
Who created the cotton mill?
Answer:
Richard Arkwright created the cotton mill.

Question 11.
Name the most dynamic industries in Britain.
Answer:
Cotton and Metal industries.

Question 12.
Who improved and patented the steam engine produced by Newcomen?
Answer:
James Watt.

Question 13.
Who invented the Spinning Jenny?
Answer:
James Hargreaves invented the Spinning Jenny.

Question 14.
Before the age of machines, which Indian industries dominated the international market?
Answer:
Before the age of machines, the silk and cotton industries of India dominated the international market in textiles.

Question 15.
Name any three pre-colonial ports in India.
Answer:
Surat, Masulipatam and Hoogly.

Question 16.
Name the ports which grew during the colonial period.
Answer:
Bombay (Mumbai) and Calcutta (Kolkata).

Question 17.
Why did the pre-colonial ports decline by the 1750s?
Answer:
Because the European companies gradually gained power first, securing a variety of concessions from local courts, secondly, the monopoly rights to trade.

Question 18.
Why did the East India Company appoint Gomasthas?
Answer:
The East India Company appointed Gomasthas to supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the quality of cloth.

Question 19.
Write any two problems faced by Indian weavers.
Answer:
(i) Their export market collapsed.
(ii) The local market shrank.

Question 20.
Which company official said, “The demand for Indian textiles could never reduce since no other nation produced goods of the same quality”?
Answer:
Henry Patullo, an East India Company officer, gave this statement in the year 1772.

Question 21.
Name any four major centres of cotton textiles of India during the colonial period.
Answer:

• Bombay (1854)
• Kanpur (1860)
• Ahmedabad (1861)
• Madras (1874).

Question 22.
Name some early Indian entrepreneurs of the nineteenth century in the field of industry and trade.
Answer:

• Dwarkanath Tagore
• Dinshaw Petit
• Jamsetjee Nusservvanjee Tata,
• Seth Hukum Chand
• Father and grandfather of G.D. Birla.

Question 23.
In which sectors did Dwarkanath Tagore invest his capital?
Answer:
Dwarkanath Tagore invested his capital in various sectors, such as shipping, shipbuilding, mining, banking, insurance and plantations.

Question 24.
Who established the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917?
Answer:
Seth Hukum Chand.

Question 25.
Who was called a jobber?
Answer:
A person employed by the industrialists to get new recruits was called a jobber.

Question 26.
Why did the workers use to pay the jobber money to get work?
Answer:
The workers used to pay money to the jobber because the demand for workers was less than the supply.

Question 27.
Write the benefits gained by the use of Fly Shuttle.
Answer:
Fly shuttle increased productivity per worker, speeded up production and reduced labour demand.

Question 28.
Which image was most commonly used to popularise baby products?
Answer:
Baby Krishna’s image was most commonly used to popularise baby products.

Question 29.
What were the methods used by Indian and British Industries to sell their products in India?
Answer:

• They put labels on the cloth bundles.
• They used images of gods and goddesses.
• They printed calendars.

Question 30.
Who is a Stapler?
Answer:
A stapler is a person who sorts (stapler) wool as per its fibre.

Question 31.
Who is a Fuller ?
Answer:
Fuller is a person who gathers (fulls) cloth by pleating. ‘

Question 32.
Name the four major European groups of people.
Answer:

• Portuguese
• Dutch
• English
• French.

Question 33.
Write the names of two growing and two decaying Indian cities during the first half of eighteenth century.
Answer:
(i) Growing cities- Bombay (Mumbai) and Calcutta (Kolkata)
(ii) Decaying cities- Surat and Hoogly.

Short Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
“Although the demand for goods began growing, but merchants could not expand production within towns in the 17th and 18th centuries.” Explain why?
Answer:
In the 17th and 18th centuries, merchants could not expand production within towns because of the following reasons:
(i) The urban crafts and trade guilds were powerful.
(ii) The rulers granted different guilds, the monopoly right to produce and trade in specific products. It was, therefore, difficult for new merchants to set up business in towns.

Question 2.
Define the term ‘Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
The term Industrial Revolution stands for those developments and inventions which revolutionized the technique and organisation of production in the later half of the eighteenth century.

Question 3.
How was proto-industrialisation different from factory production?
Answer:
Proto-Industrialisation was a decentralised method of production which was controlled by merchants, and the goods were produced by a vast number of producers located in different places, whereas under factories, production became centralised. Most of the processes were brought together under one roof and management.

Question 4.
What were guilds?
Answer:
Guilds were the association of producers that trained craftspersons, maintained control over production, regulated competition and prices, and restricted the entry of new people within the trade. Rulers granted different guilds, the monopoly right to produce and trade in specific products.

Question 5.
During the proto-industrial phase, what did the merchant’s clothier in England do?
Answer:
The merchant’s clothier in England did the following things :

• They purchased wool from a wool stapler.
• They carried wool to the spinners.
• The yarn that was spun, was taken in subsequent stages of production, to weavers, fullers and then, to dyers.
• Then, the finishing was done in London and cloth was sold to the export merchant.

Question 6.
What was the main feature of the proto-industrial system?
Answer:
The proto-industrial system was controlled by merchants and the goods were produced by a vast number of producers working within their family farms, not in factories.

Question 7.
Why did most industrialists of Victorian Britain not want to use modern machines?
Answer:
In Victorian Britain, most of industrialists did not want to introduce machines because of the following reasons :

• In Victorian Britain, there was no shortage of human labour.
• Machines required large capital investment and made them to get rid of human labour.
• In all industries, where production fluctuated with the season, industrialists usually preferred hand labour.

Question 8.
Why did the aristocratic class in Europe prefer to use hand products in the Victorian period? Explain with examples.
Answer:
The aristocratic class in Europe preferred to use hand products in the Victorian period because :

• They symbolized refinement and class.
• They were better finished.
• They were individually produced and carefully designed.

Question 9.
Why was the East India Company keen on expanding textile exports from India during the 1760s?
Answer:
The East India Company was keen on expanding textile exports from India during the 1760s because the British cotton industries had not yet expanded and the Indian fine textiles were in great demand in Europe.

Question 10.
Who was Gomasthas? Why were there clashes between the weavers and the Gomasthas?
Answer:
The Gomasthas were the paid servants of the East India Company, who used to supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the quality of cloth. They were outsiders, with no long-term social link with the village, so they acted arrogantly, marched into villages with the police and punished weavers for the delay in supply. So, there were reports of clashes between the weavers and the Gomasthas.

Question 11.
What were the main functions of European managing Agencies?
Answer:
European managing agencies, like Bird Heights & co., Jardine Skinner & Co., Andrew Yule, etc. controlled a large sector of Indian industries. Their main functions were the following :

• They controlled large sector of industries
• These agencies mobilised capital, set up joint stock companies and managed them
• In most cases, the Indian financiers provided the capital, while European agencies made all the investments and took business decisions.

Question 12.
During the First World War, industrial production in India boomed. Give reasons.
Answer:

• Manchester imports into India declined, as British mills were busy with war production.
• Indian industries were also called upon to supply war needs: jute bags, cloth for the army uniform, tents and leather boots.
• Even after the war, Manchester failed to recapture its old position in the Indian market.

Question 13.
Discuss the role of advertisement in creating new consumers.
Answer:
Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary. They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs. If we look back into history, since the very beginning of the industrial age, advertisements have played a very vital role in expanding the markets for products and in shaping new consumer culture.

Question 14.
Why did the industrialists of Manchester use labels to sell their clothes in India?
Answer:
When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles. The label was placed to make the place of manufacture and the name of the company, familiar to the buyer. The label was also a mark of quality.

Question 15.
How did Indian advertisements become a vehicle of nationalist aspirations?
Answer:
In colonial times, the nationalist message of Swadeshi was popularised through advertisements. The message was often loud and clear, urging people to buy Indian products if they cared for the nation. Thus, all Indian goods once advertised, became a vehicle of the nationalist message of Swadeshi.

Question 16.
What is meant by “Factory system”?
Answer:
The factory system is an inherent part of the Industrial Revolution. The introduction of machines which could produce goods at a very fast speed resulted into the establishment of factories which are the sites where these machines are installed.

Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Mention the characteristics of the cover page printed on a music book published by E. T. Pauli in 1900.
Answer:
In the year 1900, a popular music publisher E. T. Pauli produced a music book that had a picture on the cover page, announcing the ‘Dawn of the Century. At the centre of the picture is a goddess, the angel of progress, bearing the flag of the new century. She is gently perched on a wheel with wings, symbolising time. Her flight is taking her into the future. Behind her, there are the signs of progress: railway, camera, machines, printing press and factory.

• Question 2.
  “The poor peasants and artisans in the countryside began working for merchants.” Give reasons.
  Answer:
  During the phase of proto-industrialisation, the poor peasants and artisans began working for merchants due to the reasons given ahead: This was a time when open fields in Europe were disappearing and commons were being enclosed. Poor peasants, who had earlier depended on these lands for their survival, had now to look for alternative sources of income.
• Many peasants had tiny plots of land which could not provide work for all members of the household.
• So when merchants came around and offered advances to produce goods for them, peasant households eagerly agreed.
• By working for the merchants, they could remain in the countryside and continue to cultivate their small plots.
• Income from proto-industrial production supplemented their shrinking income from cultivation. It also allowed them, fuller use of their family labour resources.

Question 3.
The production of cotton boomed in the late nineteenth century. Mention the changes within the process of production, which was responsible for the increased production of cotton.
Answer:

• A series of inventions in the eighteenth century increased the efficacy of each step of the production process (carding, twisting and spinning and rolling.)
• Now, the costly new machines could be purchased, set up and maintained in the mill.
• Within the mill, all the processes were brought together under one roof and management.
• This allowed more careful supervision over the production process, a watch over quality, and the regulation of labour, all of which had been difficult to do when production was in the countryside.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the availability of employment for European workers in the early nineteenth century.
Answer:

• The abundance of labour in the market affected the lives of workers. The actual possibility of getting a job depended on existing networks of friendship and kin relations. If they had a relative or a friend in a factory, they were more likely to get a job quickly.
• Many job-seekers had to wait for weeks, spending nights under bridges or in night shelters.
• Seasonality of work in many industries meant prolonged periods without work. So, some returned to the countryside and most of the others looked for odd jobs.
• The income of workers depended not on the wage rate alone. The number of days of work determined the average daily income of the workers.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the development of factories in India.
Answer:

• The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in 1854 and it went into production two years later.
• By 1862, four mills were at work, with 94,000 spindles and 2,150 looms.
• Around the same time, jute mills came up in Bengal, the first being set up in 1855, and another one seven years later, in 1862.
• In north India, the Elgin mill was started in Kanpur in the 1860s, and a year later, the first cotton mill of Ahmedabad was set up.
• By 1874, the first spinning and weaving mill in Madras began its production.

Question 6.
Write in brief the activities of the early Indian entrepreneurs.
Answer:

• The history of many business groups goes back to trade with China.
• From the late eighteenth century, the British in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England.
• Many Indians became junior players in this trade, providing finance, procuring supplies, and shipping consignments. Having earned through trade, some of these businessmen had visions of developing industrial enterprises in India.
• In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made his fortune in the China trade before he turned to industrial investment, setting up six joint-stock companies in the 1830s and 1840s.
• In Bombay, Parsis like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata accumulated their initial wealth, partly from exports to China, and partly from raw cotton shipments to England.
• Seth Hukum Chand, a Marwari businessman who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in the year 1917, also traded with China. So did the father as well as the grandfather of the famous industrialist G.D. Birla.

Question 7.
Who was a jobber? Explain his functions.
Answer:
Jobber:
The person employed by an industrialist to recruit the right kind of people for work was called a jobber. He was an old and trusted worker. He was a middleman, employed on commission by the industrialists. He was like a safety valve in case, anything wrong was committed by the labourers.

Functions:
(i) He got people from his village, ensured them jobs and helped them settle in the city.
(ii) He provided money to the fellows in times of crisis.

Question 8.
Explain the miserable conditions of Indian weavers during the East India Company’s regime in the eighteenth century.
Answer:
(i) Due to industrialisation in Britain, the export market of Indian weavers collapsed. As British traders started exporting machine-made clothes to India, their local market also shrank.

(ii) As raw cotton was being exported to England, there was a shortage of raw materials. When the American civil war broke out, and the cotton supplies from the United States were cut off, Britain turned to India. As raw cotton exports from India increased, there resulted in a shortage of supplies, and the weavers were forced to buy raw cotton at higher prices.

(iii) The Gomasthas, who was appointed by the government, acted arrogantly and punished weavers for the delay in supply. So, the weavers clashed with them.

(iv) The Britishers started the system of advances to regularise the supply. The weavers eagerly took the advances in the hope to earn more, but they failed to do so. They even started losing their small plots of land which they had earlier cultivated.

Question 9.
How were the Indian merchants and industrialists discriminated against by the Britishers?
Answer:

• The market, within which Indian merchants could function, became increasingly limited.
• The Indian merchants and traders were barred from trading with Europe in manufactured goods and had to export only raw materials and foodgrains – raw cotton, opium and wheat, indigo – required by the British.
• With the entry of modern ships, Indian merchants were edged out of the shipping business.
• The European merchants and industrialists had their exclusive chamber of commerce, and Indians were not allowed to become its members.

Question 10.
‘In the 20th century, the handloom cloth production expanded steadily, i.e. almost trebling between 1900 and 1940.’ Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Handicraft producers adopted a new technology which helped in improving production without excessively pushing up costs.
(ii) By the second decade of the twentieth century, most of the weavers started using looms with fly shuttles. This increased productivity per worker speeded up production and reduced labour demand. By 1941, over 35 per cent of handlooms in India were fitted with fly shuttles.
(iii) There were several other small innovations that helped weavers to improve their productivity and compete with the mill sector.

Question 11.
How were the calendars used to increase the sale of products in India, during the British Colonial time?
Answer:
Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who could not read. The calendars were hung in tea shops and in poor people’s homes, just as much as in offices and middle-class houses. People who hung the calendars used to see the advertisements, day after day, throughout the year. In these calendars, the figures of gods were used to sell new products. Like the images of god, figures of important personages, of emperors and nawabs, adorned the calendars. The message very often seemed to say : if you respect the royal figure, then respect this product and use them. Thus, calendars helped to increase the sale of products in India.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the major features of the industrialisation process of Europe in the 19th century.
Answer:
Major features of the industrialisation process of Europe in the 19th century are as follows :
(i) Main Industries:
The cotton and metal industries were the most dynamic industries in Britain. Cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation. With the expansion of railways in England from the 1840s, and in the colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly. By 1873, Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about 77 million Pounds, double the value of its cotton export.

(ii) Domination of traditional industry:
Modern machinery and industries could not easily displace traditional industries. Even by the end of the nineteenth century, less than 20 per cent of the total workforce was employed in technologically advanced industrial sectors. The textile was a dynamic sector, where a large portion of the output was produced. This sector was not established within factories, but outside, within the domestic units.

(iii) Base for growth:
The pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries. They were the ordinary and small innovations which built up the basis of growth in many non-mechanised sectors, such as food processing, building, pottery, glass work, tanning, furniture making and production of implements.

(iv) Slow pace:
Though technological inventions were taking place, their pace was very slow. They did not spread dramatically across the industrial landscape. New technologies and machines were expensive, so the producers and the industrialists were cautious about using them. The machines often broke down and the repair was costly. They were not as effective as their manufacturers claimed.

Question 2.
Mention the major features of Indian textiles before the age of machine industries.
Answer:
Major features of Indian textiles before the age of machine industries :
(i) The age of Indian textiles:
Historically, India was one of the leading producers of cotton textiles. Silk and cotton products of India dominated the international market. India was known for its finer varieties of cotton. The Armenian and Persian merchants took these goods from Punjab to Afghanistan, eastern Persia and Central Asia. Though most of the trade was carried through land routes, the sea route was also used. Cities like Surat, Masaulipatnam and Hoogly were the most important ports used for trade.

(ii) A complex and complete market:
Before the arrival of the outsiders, the trade was handled by a variety of Indian merchants and bankers.

The whole process of trade basically involved three steps:

• Carrying or transporting goods, and
• Supplying goods to the exporters.

Supply merchants linked the port towns to the inland regions. They gave advances to weavers, procured the woven cloth from villagers, and carried the supply to the ports. At the port, big shippers and export merchants had brokers who negotiated the price, and bought goods from the supply merchants, operating inland.

Question 3.
What led to the decline of Indian textile exports in the beginning of the nineteenth century?
Answer:
Textile exports declined from the beginning of the nineteenth century because :
(i) When cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles to enable Manchester goods to be sold in Britain without facing any competition from outside. On the other hand, British industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British products in the Indian market as well.
(ii) Export of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the beginning of the nineteenth century.
(iii) The Indian textile manufacturers were unable to compete with the cheap and durable goods from Manchester.
(iv) Cotton weavers in India thus, faced two problems at the same time – their export market collapsed and the local market shrank.
(v) By the decade of 1860, weavers faced an additional problem. They could not get a sufficient supply of good quality raw cotton. When the American civil war broke out and cotton supplies from the United States of America to British industries were cut off, Britain turned to India to meet the needs of its industries for raw cotton.
(vi) As raw cotton export from India increased, the price of raw cotton increased, and weavers in India were starved of supplies of good cotton. These weavers were forced to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices. This reduced their earnings. Many people, therefore, migrated to other cities or towns and started working as agricultural labourers.
(vii) By the end of the nineteenth century, factories were set up in India. These too started flooding the market with machine-made goods. These factors contributed to the decline of the Indian weaving industry.

Question 4.
Describe the important features related to industrial growth in India.
Answer:
The following features are important for the industrial growth in India:
(i) In the late nineteenth century, industrial growth was slow in India. When Indian businessmen began setting up industries in the nineteenth century, they avoided competing with Manchester goods in the Indian market. Since, yam was not an important part of British imports into India, early cotton mills in India produced coarse yam rather than fabric, to be used by handloom weavers, or for export to China.

(ii) As a result of the Swadeshi movement, the nationalists inspired people to boycott foreign cloth. The industrial groups organised themselves for the safety of their personal interests. They pressurised the government to increase the import duty and to offer other concessions. All these things lead to growth in production.

(iii) After 1906, there was a decrease in the export of Indian yam to China. In the Chinese markets, there was a flood of products prepared in Chinese and Japanese mills. Consequently, Indian industrialists began to produce cloth in place of yarn. The production of cloth doubled in India between 1900 and 1912.

(iv) Till the First World War, industrial growth was slow in India. Indian industrial growth was linked to the First World War also. During the war, British industries were busy with war productions and Manchester imports declined suddenly. Indian mills now had access to a vast home market to supply their goods.

(v) As the First World War prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs, e.g. jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots and a host of other items. Thus, new factories were set up and old ones worked in multiple shifts. Over the war years, industrial production boomed in India and many new workers gained employment.

(vi) While factory industries grew regularly after the war, large industries formed only! a small segment of the economy. Most of them, about 67 per cent in the year 1911, were ‘ located in Bengal and Bombay. Over the rest of the country, small-scale production units continued to predominate.

Question 5.
Explain the methods used by producers to expand their markets in the 19th century.
Answer:
The methods used by producers to expand their markets in the 19th century are as follows :
(i) Advertisements:
The most effective method used by the producers was the advertisements through newspapers, magazines, pamphlets and calendars. These played a vital role in expanding the markets for products and in shaping new consumer culture.

(ii) Labelling:
When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles. When buyers saw ‘Made in Manchester’ written in bold on the label, they were expected to feel confident about buying the cloth. Labels not only carried words and letters, but they also carried images and were very often beautifully illustrated.

(iii) Calendars:
By the late 19th century, manufacturers were printing calendars to popularise their products. Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who could not read. They were hung in tea shops and in poor people’s homes, just as much as in offices and middle-class apartments. Those who hung the calendars used to see the advertisements day after day, throughout the year. Even in these calendars, images of gods and goddesses were used to attract consumers.

(iv) Images of Reputed Persons:
Along with the images of gods, figures of reputed persons, such as emperors and Nawabs were also used. The message very often seemed to say: if you respect the royal figure, then respect this product; as the product was shown being used by kings, or produced under royal command, its quality could not be questioned.

(v) Advertisements by Indian producers:
Indian manufacturers were also using selling tactics. When Indian manufacturers advertised the nationalist message, it was clear and loud: “If you care for the nation then buy products that Indians produce”. Advertisements became a vehicle of the nationalist message of Swadeshi.

Map Work

Question 1.
On the given outline map of India locate and mark where :
(i) The first iron and steel works was established.
(ii) The first spinning and weaving mill was established.
(iii) The first cotton industry was established.
(iv) The first jute mill was established.
Answer:
(i) Jamshedpur
(ii) Madras (Chennai)
(iii) Bombay (Mumbai)
(iv) Calcutta (Kolkata).

Question 2.
On the given outline in the map of India, show any four major centres of cotton textiles during the colonial period.
Answer:
(i) Major centres of cotton textile of India are:
Kanpur, Ahmedabad, Bombay and Madras.

Question 3.
On the given outline:
(i) Any big centre of industry in West India.
(ii) Any big centre of Industry in East India.
(iii) Any big centre of industry in North India.
(iv) Any big centre of industry in South India.
Answer:
(i) Bombay
(ii) Bengal
(iii) Punjab
(iv) Madras.

Haryana State Board HBSE 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India Important Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 10th Class Social Science Important Questions History Chapter 2 Nationalism in India

Multiple Choice Questions

Important Questions On Nationalism In India HBSE 10th Class Question 1.
As in Vietnam and many other colonies, the growth of modem nationalism is intimately connected to the anti-colonial movement in:
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) South Africa
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) India

Important Question On Nationalism In India HBSE 10th Class Question 2.
According to which of the following census, about 12 to 13 million people in India perished as a result of famines and epidemics.
(a) 1951
(b) 1911
(c) 1991
(d) 1921.
Answer:
(d) 1921.

Nationalism In India Map Based Questions HBSE 10th Class Question 3.
In which of the following years did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa?
(a) 1915
(b) 1951
(c) 1927
(d) 1918.
Answer:
(a) 1915

Important Questions Of Nationalism In India HBSE 10th Class Question 4.
Who led the Indian workers in South Africa marching from Newcastle to Transvaal on 6th November 1913?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(c) Mahatma Gandhi

Important Questions In Nationalism In India HBSE 10th Class Question 5.
Which Dharma could unite all Indians?
(a) Non-violence
(b) Violence
(c) Satyagraha
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Non-violence

Important Questions For Nationalism In India HBSE 10th Class Question 6.
In which year did Mahatma Gandhi travel to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system?
(a) 1915
(b) 1921
(c) 1917
(d) 1932.
Answer:
(c) 1917

Important Question Nationalism In India HBSE 10th Class Question 7.
In which city did Mahatma Gandhi launch satyagraha in 1918 ?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Amritsar
(c) Kheda
(d) Champaran.
Answer:
(a) Ahmed

Question 8.
In which of the following cities was the Khilafat committee formed in March 1919?
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Bhopal
(d) Jalandhar.
Answer:
(a) Bombay

Question 9.
When did Gandhiji launch a nationwide satyagraha movement against the proposed Rowlatt Act ?
(a) 1922
(b) 1916
(c) 1919
(d) 1921.
Answer:
(c) 1919

Question 10.
When did Jallianwala Bagh Massacre take place?
(a) 13th April 1916
(b) 13th April 1918
(c) 13th April 1919
(d) 13th April 1927.
Answer:
(c) 13th April 1919

Question 11.
When did Non-cooperation Movement begin?
(a) January 1921
(b) February 1921
(c) March 1921
(d) December 1932.
Answer:
(a) January 1921

Question 12.
Who led the peasants’ revolt in Awadh during the Non-cooperation Movement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Baba Ramchandra
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Baba Ramchandra

Question 13.
In which year was the Inland Emigration Act Passed?
(a) 1857
(b) 1858
(c) 1859
(d) 1947.
Answer:
(c) 1859

Question 14.
In which year did the Chauri-Chaura incident take place?
(a) 1922
(b) 1920
(c) 1925
(d) 1928.
Answer:
(a) 1922

Question 15.
When did Gandhiji decide to withdraw from the Non-cooperation Movement?
(a) 1920
(b) 1923
(c) 1932
(d) 1922.
Answer:
(d) 1922.

Question 16.
In which year did the Simon Commission arrive in India?
(a) 1925
(b) 1932
(c) 1928
(d) 1947.
Answer:
(c) 1928

Question 17.
Who declared a vague offer of ‘dominion status for India in 1929?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Sir John Simon.
Answer:
(b) Lord Irwin

Question 18.
In which session of Congress was the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ formalized?
(a) Lahore session
(b) Lucknow session
(c) Bombay session
(d) Calcutta session.
Answer:
(a) Lahore session

Question 19.
Who said “The Swaraj will not come for a hundred years if untouchability is not eliminated?”
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Annie Besant.
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 20.
In which year was the Poona Pact signed?
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
(d) 1933
Answer:
(c) 1932

Question 21.
Who organized the dalits into the Depressed Class Association?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Baba Ramchandra
(d) Motilal Nehru.
Answer:
(a) B.R. Ambedkar

Question 22.
Who created the first image of Bharat Mata?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Abanindranath Tagore
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Answer:
(c) Abanindranath Tagore

Fill in the blanks

1. The growth of modern nationalism is intimately connected to the …………. moment.
Answer:
anti-colonial.

2. ………….. recruitment in rural areas caused widespread anger.
Answer:
forced.

3. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January …………..
Answer:
1915.

4. The movement started with the participation of the ………….. in the cities.
Answer:
middle-class.

5. Commission arrived in India in
Answer:
Simon, 1928.

6. Mahatma Gandhi relaunched the …………. movement.
Answer:
Civil Disobedience.

7. Ideas of also developed through a movement to ………….. Indian folklore.
Answer:
nationalism, revive.

8. In Madras, …………… published a massive four-volume collection of Tamil folk tales.
Answer:
Natesa Sastri.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Nationalism.
Answer:
Nationalism is a feeling of political consciousness and unity among the people of a state. It is the feeling of devotion, love and patriotism for one’s own nation.

Question 2.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi undertake the satyagraha movement in South Africa?
Answer:
In South Africa, Gandhiji started a satyagraha movement against racist laws that denied rights to non-whites.

Question 3.
What is satyagraha?
Answer:
A method of agitation and protest, based on truth and non-violence is called satyagraha.

Question 4.
What were, according to Gandhiji, the basic principles of satyagraha?
Answer:
(a) Truth
(b) Ahimsa or Non-violence.

Question 5.
What did Gandhiji believe about non-violence?
Answer:
Gandhiji believed, that the dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians.

Question 6.
Name any three places where satyagraha was launched by Gandhiji.
Answer:
(i) Champaran (Bihar) in 1916
(ii) Kheda (Gujarat) in 1917
(iii) Ahmedabad, (Gujarat) in 1918.

Question 7.
Who first introduced satyagraha in Indian National Movement?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi first introduced satyagraha in Indian National Movement.

Question 8.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi travel to Champaran in Bihar?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi traveled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

Question 9.
What is Rowlatt Act?
Answer:
Rowlatt Act was a law or tool of repression passed by the British Government on 18th March 1919.

Question 10.
What was the main objective of General Dyer behind the opening fire on the people at Jallianwala Bagh?
Answer:
General Dyer wanted to create terror among satyagrahis.

Question 11.
Who wrote the famous book ‘Hind Swaraj’?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 12.
Where and when was Khilafat Committee formed?
Answer:
Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay (Mumbai) in March 1919.

Question 13.
When was the Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement started?
Answer:
The Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement was started in January 1921.

Question 14.
Who was Baba Ramchandra?
Answer:
Baba Ramchandra was a leader of Awadh Peasants. In 1918-19, he led a peasant movement during the Non-cooperation Movement.

Question 15.
In which state was a militant guerrilla movement started in the early 1920s?
Answer:
In the Gudem hills of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 16.
What was the Indian Emigration Act of 1859?
Answer:
Under this Act, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission.

Question 17.
When and where did the Chauri – Chaura incident take place?
Answer:
This incident took place on 5th February 1922, in the village Chauri-Chaura, Gorakhpur (Uttar Pradesh).

Question 18.
Name any two movements launched by Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

• Non-cooperation Movement.
• Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 19.
Who founded the Swaraj Party?
Answer:
C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru.

Question 20.
What was decided in the Lahore Session of Congress in December 1929?
Answer:
It was decided that 26th January 1930 would be celebrated as Independence Day.

Question 21.
Who was the President of the Lahore Session of Congress?
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 22.
What was the importance of the Lahore Congress Session of 1929?
Answer:
In December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, the Lahore Congress formalized the demand of ‘Puma Swaraj’ or complete independence for India.

Question 23.
What was the main objective of the Salt March?
Answer:’
To break the salt law imposed by the British.

Question 24.
Mention the starting and ending point of Gandhi’s Salt March.
Answer:
Starting Point – Sabarmati Ashram Ending Point – Dandi.

Question 25.
When and where was the Second Round-Table Conference organized?
Answer:
‘It was organized in 1931 in London.

Question 26.
Why did the rich peasants of the countryside and Jats of Uttar Pradesh? actively participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:
Because they were much hit by the trade depression and falling prices.

Question 27.
Name the two organizations of Indian Merchants and Industrialists formed to protect their business interests.
Answer:
(i) Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress.
(ii) Federation of the Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industries.

Question 28.
Name the prominent industrialists who supported the Civil Disobedience movement.
Answer:

• Purshottam Das Thakurdas
• G.D. Birla.

Question 29.
Who organized the Dalits into the depressed classes association in 1930? Describe his achievements. (CBSE2019)
Answer:
Depressed classes association was organized by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1930 and its achievements are-

• Ambedkar raised the demand of separate electorate for Dalits.
• British government conceded Ambedkar’s demand of separate electorates for Dalits.
• Ambedkar accepted Gandhiji’s position and as the result, Poona Pact was signed.

Question 30.
Why did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar clash with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference ?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference because of the demand of separate electorates for dalits.

Question 31.
What was Poona Pact of September 1932?
Answer:
It gave the depressed classes, reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils.

Question 32.
Who wrote ‘Vande Mataram’?
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya wrote “Vande Mataram’.

Question 33.
Which painter painted Bharat Mata as an ascetic figure?
Answer:
Abanindranath Tagore.

Question 34.
Who published ‘The Folklore of Southern India’?
Answer:
Natesa Sastri published a massive four-volume collection of Tamil folk tales named as ‘The Folklore of Southern India.’

Question 35.
What was forced recruitment?
Answer:
It was a process by which the colonial state forced people to join the army.

Short Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
Mention any three factors which were responsible for arousing the spirit of nationalism in India.
Answer:
Three factors which were responsible for arousing the spirit of nationalism in India were : .

• Political unification of the country under the Britishers.
• Destruction of India’s social and economic system.
• Development of modem trade and industry.

Question 2.
Mention any three places where Satyagraha movement was successfully organised by Mahatma Gandhi after his arrival in India.
Answer:

• Champaran: In 1917, Gandhiji travelled to Champaran in Bihar, to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.
• Kheda : In 1917, he organised satyagraha in Kheda district of Gujarat, to support the peasants affected by crop failure and plague epidemic. The peasants could not pay the revenue and were demanding that revenue collection be relaxed.
• Ahmedabad: In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad, to organise satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers to get their wages raised.

Question 3.
What was Rowlatt Act ? How did it affect the national movement ?
Answer:
The Rowlatt Act was passed through the Imperial Legislative Council, on a report of the committee headed by Justice Rowlatt. It gave the government, enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial, for two years.

Question 4.
What were the steps taken by the British government to suppress the satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act?
Answer:
The steps taken by the British Government to suppress the satyagraha against the Rowlett Act were the following ones:

• The British administration decided to clamp down on nationalists.
• Local leaders were arrested in Amritsar.
• Mahatma Gandhi was not permitted to enter Delhi.
• Martial law was imposed.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Answer:
On 13th April 1919, the very famous Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in Amritsar. On that day, a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh to attend the annual Baisakhi fair, when Martial Law was already imposed in the city. General Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd. Hundreds of people were killed or injured.

Question 6.
Write any three economic influences of the Non-cooperation Movement.
Answer:
The economic influences of the Non-cooperation Movement were :

• Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign clothes burnt in huge bonfires.
• The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from ₹ 102 crore to ₹ 57 crore.
• As people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, the production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.

Question 7.
What were the arguments of Gandhiji behind the Non-cooperation Movement?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi declared, that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year, and swaraj would come.

Question 8.
What were the major problems of the peasants of Awadh?
Answer:
The major problems of the peasants of Awadh were the following:

• The talukdars and landlords demanded exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other taxes from peasants.
• Peasants had to do begar and work at landlords’ farms without any payment.
• As tenants, peasants had no security of tenure, and were being regularly evicted, so they could acquire no right over the leased land.

Question 9.
What were the problems of tribal peasants living in Gudem hills of Andhra Pradesh ?
Answer:
The problems of tribal peasants living in Gudem hills were following ones :

• The colonial government had closed large forest areas, preventing people from entering the forest to graze their cattle.
• They could not collect fuelwood and fruits.
• The government began forcing them to contribute begar for road building.

Question 10.
What did swaraj mean for plantation workers in Assam?
Answer:
Plantation workers had their own understanding of swaraj. For them, freedom meant the right to move freely in and outside the confined space of plantations, and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.

Question 11.
What was Chauri-Chaura Incident ? What action was taken by Mahatma Gandhi on hearing about the incident?
Answer:
At Chauri-Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a violent clash, in which more than 20 policemen were killed. It took place on 5th February 1922. On hearing about the incident, Mahatma Gandhi called for a halt on the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 12.
What were the steps taken by British government to satisfy the Indian nationalists opposing the Simon Commission?
Answer:
To satisfy the Indian nationalists opposing the Simon Commission, the British government announced the steps given ahead :
(i) Lord Irwin announced a vague offer of ‘dominion status for India in an unspecified future.
(ii) A Round Table Conference was organized to discuss a future constitution.

Question 13.
Why was salt chosen as a weapon to fight against the Britishers?
Answer:

• Mahatma Gandhi found in salt, a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.
• Salt was one of the most essential items of food, consumed by the rich and the poor, alike.
• The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.

Question 14.
Explain the reaction of people after Gandhiji was arrested during Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
When Mahatma Gandhi and his disciple Abdul Gaffar Khan were arrested in 1930, an angry crowd demonstrated on the streets of Peshawar. Industrial workers in Sholapur attacked police posts, municipal buildings, law courts, railway stations and all structures that symbolized British rule.

Question 15.
When was Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed? What were its major features?
Answer:
Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5th March 1931. The major features of this pact were the following :
(i) Gandhiji consented to participate in a Round Table Conference in London.
(ii) The government agreed to release the political prisoners.

Question 16.
Why were the business groups no longer uniformly enthusiastic in the movement after the failure of the Second Round Table Conference?
Answer:
After the failure of the Second Round Table Conference, business groups were no longer uniformly enthusiastic because of the following reasons:
(i) They were apprehensive of the spread of militant activities.
(ii) They were worried about prolonged disruption of business, as well as of the growing influence of socialism amongst the younger members of Congress.

Question 17.
Write any three efforts made by Gandhiji to provide untouchables their rights.
Answer:

• He called the ‘untouchables’-Ziari/’an or children of God.
• He organised Satyagraha to secure their entry into temples and access to public wells, tanks, roads and schools.
• He himself cleaned the toilets to dignify the work of the sweeper and persuaded upper castes to change their heart and give up ‘the sin’ of untouchability.

Question 18.
Write a short note on the Muslim League.
Answer:
The Muslim League was established for Muslim community. It demanded separate electorates. But later, its leaders were willing to give up the demand for separate electorates, if Muslims were assured reserved seats in the central assembly and representation in proportion to the population in the Muslim-dominated provinces.

Question 19.
Write a short note on the portrait of Bharat Mata painted by Abanindranath Tagore.
Answer:
The image of Bharat Mata was painted by Abanindranath Tagore in 1905. In this painting, Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual. The mother figure is shown as dispensing learning, food and clothing.

Short Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
What was the impact of First World War on our country?
OR
Write a note on the new economic and political situations created during the First World War.
Answer:

• The First World War changed the economic and political situation in our country.
• It led to a huge increase in defense expenditure, which was financed by war loans and increasing taxes, customs duties were raised and income tax was introduced.
• Through the war years, prices increased, doubling between 1913 and 1918, leading to extreme hardship for the common people.
• Villages were called upon to supply soldiers and the forced recruitment in rural areas caused widespread anger.

Question 2.
Mention the major proposal of Gandhiji with reference to the Non-cooperation Movement.
Answer:
Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in the following stages :

• It should begin with the surrender of the titles that the government awarded.
• There should be a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils.
• There should be a boycott of schools and colleges and a withdrawal of children from there.
• There should be a boycott of foreign goods.
• Then, in case the government used repression, a full Civil Disobedience Campaign would be launched.

Question 3.
What was the Khilafat Movement?
Answer:
The Khilafat Movement was started by the famous Ali Brothers-, Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, in 1919. Ottoman Turkey was defeated in the First World War and a harsh peace treaty was going to be imposed on the Ottoman emperor – the spiritual head of the Islamic world (the Khalifa). To protest this injustice done to Turkey and to defend the Khalifa’s temporal powers, a Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay (Mumbai) in March 1919 to launch the Khilafat Movement.

Question 4.
Why did Gandhiji support the Khilafat Movement?
Answer:
(i) As the satyagraha against Rowlatt Act was limited to cities and towns, Mahatma Gandhi felt the need to launch a more broad-based movement in India. But, he was certain that no such movement could be organized without bringing the Hindus and Muslims closer together. One way of doing this was that he convinced other leaders to start a Non¬cooperation Movement in support of the Khilafat Movement.

(ii) A young generation of Muslim leaders, like the brothers Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, began discussing with Mahatma Gandhi the possibility of united mass action on the Khilafat issue. Gandhiji saw this as an opportunity to bring Muslims under the umbrella of a unified national movement.

Question 5.
What was the reaction of middle-class people of the cities participating in the Non-cooperation Movement?
Answer:

• Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, head¬masters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their legal practices.
• The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
• Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign clothes burnt in huge bonfires.
• As the boycott movement spread, people began discarding imported clothes and started wearing only Indian ones, like Khadi.

Question 6.
What were the factors responsible for the gradual slowdown of the Non-cooperation Movement in the cities ?
Answer:
The following factors were responsible for the gradual slowdown of the Non¬cooperation Movement in the cities:

• Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it. Therefore, a boycott of mill clothes for a long time was not possible.
• The boycott of British institutions posed a problem. For the movement to be successful, alternative Indian institutions had to be set up, so that they could be used in place of the British ones, but these were slow to come up. So, students and teachers began trickling back to government schools and lawyers joined back to work in government courts.

Question 7.
Write a note on Alluri Sitarama Raju.
Answer:
Alluri Sitarama Raju was the leader of tribal peasants, living in the Gudem hills of Andhra Pradesh. Raju claimed that he had a variety of special powers ; he could make correct astrological predictions and heal people and he could survive even bullet shots. Captivated by Raju, the rebels proclaimed that he was an incarnation of God. Inspired by Gandhiji and the Non-cooperation Movement, he persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking. But at the same time, he asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence. Under his leadership, the Gudem rebels attacked police stations, attempted to kill British officials and carried on guerilla warfare for achieving swaraj. Raju was captured and executed in 1924, and over time became a folk hero.

Question 8.
Why was the Non-cooperation Movement withdrawn by Gandhiji?
Answer:
In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-cooperation Movement because of the following reasons:

• The movement was turning violent in many places. At Chauri-Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a market turned into a violent clash, in which more than 20 policemen were killed.
• Gandhiji felt that satyagrahis needed to be properly trained before they would be ready for mass struggles.
• Within the Congress, some leaders were by now tired of mass struggles and wanted to participate in elections to the provincial councils, that had been set up by the Government of India Act of 1919.

Question 9.
Why was the Simon Commission constituted? Why was the commission rejected by the Indians?
Answer:
(i) The Indian members of the Central Legislative Assembly exposed the drawbacks in the Government of India Act of 1919. As a result of it, the Simon Commission was appointed in 1927, to suggest any further constitutional reforms. This commission consisted of seven white members and its chairman was Sir John Simon.

(ii) However Indians boycotted the commission because it did not have a single Indian member. The terms of the Commission’s appointment did not give any indication of swaraj, while the demand of the Indians was only swaraj.

Question 10.
Which incident marked the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.
Answer:
Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement with his famous Dandi March (or Salt March), on March 12, 1930. He started his Salt March, accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati, to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and he told them what he meant by swaraj and urged them to peacefully oppose the British. On 6th April, he reached Dandi and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 11.
Why did the poor peasants join the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:
The poor peasants joined the Civil Disobedience Movement because of the following reasons:
(i) The poor peasants were not just interested in lowering of the revenue demands. Many of them were small tenants, cultivating land they had rented from landlords. They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be waived.
(ii) They joined a variety of radical movements like the ‘no rent’ campaign in most places for raising issues that might upset the rich peasants and landlords.

Question 12.
Explain the role of women participating in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
There was large-scale participation of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement. They participated in protest marches, and manufactured salt and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. Many of them went to jail. In urban areas, these women were from high caste families, but in rural areas, they came from rich peasant households.
Moved by Gandhiji’s call, they began to see service to the nation as a sacred duty of women.

Question 13.
Who led the business community during the Civil Disobedience Movement? How did the community provide a big boost to the movement?
Answer:
The business community was led by prominent industrialists like Mr. Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G.D.Birla.
The business community interpreted swaraj in their own way. They came to view swaraj as a time, when colonial restrictions on business would no longer exist and trade and industry would flourish without constraints. They provided a big boost to the Civil Disobedience Movement by providing financial assistance to the movement. They also promoted boycotts by refusing to buy or sell imported goods.

Question 14.
How was the Civil Disobedience Movement different from the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:

Civil Disobedience Movement:

• It was launched in 1930.
• Rejection of Gandhiji’s Eleven Demands was the immediate cause of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• During this movement, people were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break the colonial laws.

Non-cooperation Movement:

• It was started in 1920.
• The Rowlatt Act and the injustice done to Khalifa were the basic causes of the Non-cooperation Movement.
• During this movement, people were asked
  not to cooperate with the British government.

Question 15.
How was the flag used to promote nationalist feelings among Indians?
Answer:

• During the Swadeshi movement in Bengal, a tricolor flag (red, green and yellow) was designed.
• It had eight lotus flowers representing eight provinces of British India, and a crescent moon representing Hindus and Muslims.
• By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the swaraj flag. It was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft during marches, became a symbol of defiance.

Question 16.
The reinterpretations of history helped in promoting the sense of nationalism. Explain.
Answer:
By the end of the nineteenth century, many Indians began to feel that to instill a sense of pride in the nation, Indian history had to be thought about differently. The British saw Indians as primitive and backward, incapable of governing themselves. In response, Indians began looking into the past to discover India’s great achievements. They wrote about the glorious developments in ancient times, when art and architecture, science and mathematics, law and philosophy, crafts, religion and culture and trade had flourished. This glorious time, in their view, was followed by history of decline, when India was colonised. These nationalist histories urged the readers to take pride in India’s great achievements in the past, and struggle to change the miserable conditions of life under British colonial rule.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What situations were responsible for launching the Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement ?
OR
What were the circumstances which led to the Khilafat and the Non-cooperation Movement ?
Answer:
(i) Situations created by the First World War:
The First World War was fought between 1914 and 1918. It led to a huge increase in defence expenditure which was financed by war loans and increasing taxes. This created extreme hardship for the common people. The forced recruitment in rural areas caused widespread anger. Then, in 1918-19 and 1920¬21, crops failed in many parts of India, resulting in acute shortages of food. Millions of people perished as a result of famines and the epidemic. People hoped that their hardships would end after the war was over. But, that did not happen.

(ii) Gandhiji’s return from South Africa and Satyagraha:
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915, where he had successfully fought against the racist regime, with his new method of mass agitation and non-violence known as satyagraha. In India also, he launched satyagraha movements in various places. These satyagraha provided base to the Non-cooperation Movement.

(iii) The Rowlatt Act:
Rowlatt Act was a Law of repression made by the British Government on 18th March, 1919. This Act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite the united opposition of the Indian members. It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities, and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial, for two years.

(iv) Jallianwala Bagh massacre:
On 13 April, 1919, the very famous Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in Amritsar. This incident added fuel to the fire. In Jallianwala Bagh, people had gathered to celebrate Baisakhi. General Dyer entered the park and ordered his troops to open fire, killing many people. As the news of Jallianwala Bagh spread, crowds took to the streets in many North Indian towns.

Question 2.
Under what circumstances was the Civil Disobedience or the Salt Movement launched ?
Answer:
The Civil Disobedience or the Salt Movement was launched under the following circumstances:
(i) Failure of the Simon Commission:
Set up in response to the nationalist movement, the commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest changes. The commission did not have any single Indian member. Therefore, it failed to satisfy the Indian people and the leaders.

(ii) The demand of ‘Puma Swaraj’:
In December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, the Lahore Congress formalised the demand of ‘Puma Swaraj’ or full Independence of India. It was declared that 26th January 1930 would be celebrated as Independence Day, when people were to take a pledge to struggle for complete independence. But, the celebrations attracted very little attention. So, Mahatma Gandhi had to find a way to relate this abstract idea of freedom to more concrete issues of everyday fife.

(iii) Gandhiji’s Eleven Demands:
On 31st January 1930, Gandhiji sent a letter to Viceroy Lord Irwin stating his eleven demands. The idea was to make the demands wide-ranging so that all classes within Indian society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. It was an ultimatum to the British. If the demands were not fulfilled by 11th March, the letter stated, Congress would launch a Civil Disobedience Campaign. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So, Gandhiji started his famous Salt March, accompanied by 78 of his volunteers. On 6th April, he reached Dandi and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater.

(iv) Economic Causes:
The Great Depression of 1929 had a deep impact on the Indian economy, especially on agriculture. Agriculture prices began to fall from 1926 and collapsed after 1930. As the demand for agricultural goods fell and exports declined, peasants found it difficult to sell their harvests and pay their revenue. The government refused to lower the taxes. Under above circumstances, Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.

Question 3.
“Large sections of Muslim did not respond to the call for a united struggle during the Civil Disobedience Movement.” Explain this statement with reasons. –
Answer:
Large sections of Muslims did not show much enthusiasm during the Civil Disobedience Movement because of the following reasons:

(i) Association of Congress with Hindu Mahasabha:
After the decline of the Noncooperation Khilafat Movement, a large section of Muslims felt alienated from the Congress, because from the mid-1920s, the Congress came to be more visibly associated with Hindu religious nationalist groups like the Hindu Mahasabha.

(ii) Communal Clashes:
As relations between Hindus and Muslims worsened, each community organized religious processions with militant fervor, provoking Hindu-Muslim communal clashes and riots in various cities. Every riot deepened the rift between the two communities.

(iii) Issue of Separate Electorates:
Some of the Muslim leaders demanded separate electorates for Muslims, which was not supported by the Congress leaders.

(iv) Status of Muslims in Hindu Majority Provinces:
Many Muslim leaders and intellectuals expressed their concern about the status of Muslims as a minority within India. They feared that the culture and identity of minorities would be submerged under the domination of a Hindu majority.

Question 4.
Explain the major factors which promoted the sense of nationalism in Indians.
OR
How did a variety of cultural processes play an important role in developing a sense of nationalism in India ? Explain with examples.
Answer:
(i) United struggles:
Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation, and they discover some common bonds that bind them together. This sense of collective belonging came partly in India through the experience of united struggles against the British.

(ii) Cultural process:
There were also a variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured people’s imagination. History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols, all played a part in developing the spirit of nationalism.

(iii) Bharat Mata:
The identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata, which was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in the 1870s. He wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn dedicated to the motherland, which was widely sung by the Indians. Devotion to this mother figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s nationalism.

(iv) Revival of Indian Folklore:
Ideas of nationalism were also developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore. In late nineteenth century, Indian nationalists began recording folk tales sung by bards and they toured villages to gather folk songs and legends. These tales, they believed, gave a true picture of traditional culture, that had been corrupted and damaged by outside forces. It was essential to preserve this folk tradition in order to discover one’s national identity and restore a sense of pride in one’s past.

Map Work

Question 1.
On the given map of India, show any five centres of Indian National Movement.
Answer:

Question 2.
Show the following on the map of India:
(i) The place where Jallianwalla Bagh massacre took place.
(ii) The place where the Congress adopted the Non-cooperation programme.
(iii) The place where a peaceful demonstration in a market turned into a violent clash with the police.
(iv) The place from where Mahatma Gandhi started his march to Dandi to violate the Salt Law.
(v) The place where Dr. B.R. Ambedkar signed a pact with Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
(i) Amritsar
(ii) Nagpur
(iii) Chauri-Chaura.
(iv) Sabarmati
(v) Poona

Haryana State Board HBSE 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक Ex 4.3 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक Ex 4.3

Haryana State Board HBSE 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक Ex 4.2 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Haryana Board 12th Class Maths Solutions Chapter 4 सारणिक Ex 4.2